Below are some reading comprehension test compilations from various sources including some from the GMAT, MCAT, PCAT, etc. Give yourself only 1 minute and 10 seconds for each question to simulate the real Dental Admissions Test (DAT). Answers are located at the bottom of the page.
Use CTRL+F to navigate the passages, there 64 Passages within this document. (Example: CTRL +F and type in Passage 50 to find Passage 50)
Recent years have brought minority-owned
businesses in the United States unprecedented
opportunities-as well as new and significant risks.
Civil rights activists have long argued that one of
(5) the principal reasons why Blacks, Hispanics, and
other minority groups have difficulty establishing
themselves in business is that they lack access to
the sizable orders and subcontracts that are gener-
ated by large companies. Now Congress, in appar-
(10) ent agreement, has required by law that businesses
awarded federal contracts of more than $500,000
do their best to find minority subcontractors and
record their efforts to do so on forms filed with the
government. Indeed, some federal and local agen-
(15) cies have gone so far as to set specific percentage
goals for apportioning parts of public works con-
tracts to minority enterprises.
Corporate response appears to have been sub-
stantial. According to figures collected in 1977,
(20) the total of corporate contracts with minority busi-
nesses rose from $77 million in 1972 to $1. lbillion
in 1977. The projected total of corporate contracts
with minority businesses for the early 1980’s is
estimated to be over 53 billion per year with no
(25) letup anticipated in the next decade.
Promising as it is for minority businesses, this
increased patronage poses dangers for them, too.
First, minority firms risk expanding too fast and
overextending themselves financially, since most
(30) are small concerns and, unlike large businesses,
they often need to make substantial investments in
new plants, staff, equipment, and the like in order
to perform work subcontracted to them. If, there-
after, their subcontracts are for some reason
(35) reduced, such firms can face potentially crippling
fixed expenses. The world of corporate purchasing
can be frustrating for small entrepreneurs who get
requests for elaborate formal estimates and bids.
Both consume valuable time and resources, and a
(40) small company’s efforts must soon result in
orders, or both the morale and the financial health
of the business will suffer.
A second risk is that White-owned companies
may seek to cash in on the increasing apportion-
(45) ments through formation of joint ventures with
minority-owned concerns. Of course, in many
instances there are legitimate reasons for joint
ventures; clearly, White and minority enterprises
can team up to acquire business that neither could
(50) acquire alone. But civil rights groups and minority
business owners have complained to Congress about
minorities being set up as “fronts” with White back-
ing, rather than being accepted as full partners in
legitimate joint ventures.
(55) Third, a minority enterprise that secures the
business of one large corporate customer often run
the danger of becoming–and remaining—dependent.
Even in the best of circumstances, fierce compe-
tition from larger, more established companies
(60) makes it difficult for small concerns to broaden
their customer bases: when such firms have nearly
guaranteed orders from a single corporate bene-
factor, they may truly have to struggle against
complacency arising from their current success.
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) present a commonplace idea and its
(B) describe a situation and its potential drawbacks
(C) propose a temporary solution to a problem
(D) analyze a frequent source of disagreement
(E) explore the implications of a finding
2. The passage supplies information that would answer
which of the following questions?
(A) What federal agencies have set percentage goals for
the use of minority-owned businesses in public
(B) To which government agencies must
businesses awarded federal contracts report their
efforts to find minority subcontractors?
(C) How widespread is the use of minority-owned
concerns as “fronts” by White backers seeking to
(D) How many more minority-owned businesses were
there in 1977 than in 1972?
(E) What is one set of conditions under which a
small business might find itself financially over-
3. According to the passage, civil rights activists
maintain that one disadvantage under which
minority- owned businesses have traditionally had
to labor is that they have
(A) been especially vulnerable to governmental
mismanagement of the economy
(B) been denied bank loans at rates comparable to
those afforded larger competitors
(C) not had sufficient opportunity to secure business
created by large corporations
(D) not been able to advertise in those media that
reach large numbers of potential customers
(E) not had adequate representation in the centers of
4. The passage suggests that the failure of a large
business to have its bids for subcontracts result
quickly in orders might cause it to
(A) experience frustration but not serious financial
(B) face potentially crippling fixed expenses
(C) have to record its efforts on forms filed with the
(D) increase its spending with minority
(E) revise its procedure for making bids for federal
contracts and subcontracts
5. The author implies that a minority-owned concern
that does the greater part of its business with one
large corporate customer should
(A) avoid competition with larger, more established
concerns by not expanding
(B) concentrate on securing even more business
from that corporation
(C) try to expand its customer base to avoid
becoming dependent on the corporation
(D) pass on some of the work to be done for the
corporation to other minority-owned concerns
(E) use its influence with the corporation to promote
subcontracting with other minority concerns
6. It can be inferred from the passage that, compared
with the requirements of law, the percentage goals
set by “some federal and local agencies ”(lines 14-
(A) more popular with large corporations
(B) more specific
(C) less controversial
(D) less expensive to enforce
(E) easier to comply with
7. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the
author’s assertion that, in the 1970’s, corporate
response to federal requirements (lines 18-19) was
(A) Corporate contracts with minority-owned
businesses totaled $2 billion in 1979.
(B) Between 1970 and 1972, corporate contracts with
minority-owned businesses declined by 25
(C) The figures collected in 1977 underrepresented
the extent of corporate contracts with minority-
(D) The estimate of corporate spending with
minority-owned businesses in 1980 is
approximately $10 million too high.
(E) The $1.1 billion represented the same
percentage of total corporate spending in 1977
as did $77 million in 1972.
8. The author would most likely agree with which of the
following statements about corporate response to
working with minority subcontractors?
(A) Annoyed by the proliferation of “front”
organizations, corporations are likely to reduce
their efforts to work with minority-owned
subcontractors in the near future.
(B) Although corporations showed considerable
interest in working with minority businesses in
the 1970’s, their aversion to government
paperwork made them reluctant to pursue many
(C) The significant response of corporations in the
1970’s is likely to be sustained and conceivably
be increased throughout the 1980’s.
(D) Although corporations are eager to cooperate
with minority-owned businesses, a shortage of
capital in the 1970’s made substantial response
(E) The enormous corporate response has all but
eliminated the dangers of overexpansion that
used to plague small minority-owned businesses.
Woodrow Wilson was referring to the liberal
idea of the economic market when he said that
the free enterprise system is the most efficient
economic system. Maximum freedom means
(5) maximum productiveness; our “openness” is to
be the measure of our stability. Fascination with
this ideal has made Americans defy the “Old
World” categories of settled possessiveness versus
unsettling deprivation, the cupidity of retention
(10) versus the cupidity of seizure, a “status quo”
defended or attacked. The United States, it was
believed, had no status quo ante. Our only “sta-
tion” was the turning of a stationary wheel, spin-
ning faster and faster. We did not base our
(15) system on property but opportunity—which
meant we based it not on stability but on mobil-
ity. The more things changed, that is, the more
rapidly the wheel turned, the steadier we would
be. The conventional picture of class politics is
(20) composed of the Haves, who want a stability to
keep what they have, and the Have-Nots, who
want a touch of instability and change in which
to scramble for the things they have not. But
Americans imagined a condition in which spec-
(25) ulators, self-makers, runners are always using the
new opportunities given by our land. These eco-
nomic leaders (front-runners) would thus he
mainly agents of change. The nonstarters were
considered the ones who wanted stability, a
(30) strong referee to give them some position in the
race, a regulative hand to calm manic specula-
tion; an authority that can call things to a halt,
begin things again from compensatorily stag-
gered “starting lines.”
(35) “Reform” in America has been sterile because
it can imagine no change except through the
extension of this metaphor of a race, wider inclu-
sion of competitors, “a piece of the action,” as it
were, for the disenfranchised. There is no
(40) attempt to call off the race. Since our only sta-
bility is change, America seems not to honor the
quiet work that achieves social interdependence
and stability. There is, in our legends, no hero-
ism of the office clerk, no stable industrial work
(45) force of the people who actually make the system
work. There is no pride in being an employee
(Wilson asked for a return to the time when
everyone was an employer). There has been no
boasting about our social workers—they are
(50) merely signs of the system’s failure, of opportu-
nity denied or not taken, of things to be elimi-
nated. We have no pride in our growing
interdependence, in the fact that our system can
serve others, that we are able to help those in
(55) need; empty boasts from the past make us
ashamed of our present achievements, make us
try to forget or deny them, move away from
them. There is no honor but in the Wonderland
race we must all run, all trying to win, none
(60) winning in the end (for there is no end).
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) criticize the inflexibility of American economic
(B) contrast “Old World” and “New World” economic
(C) challenge the integrity of traditional political
(D) champion those Americans whom the author
deems to be neglected
(E) suggest a substitute for the traditional metaphor
of a race
2. According to the passage, “Old World” values were
(C) family connections
(D) guild hierarchies
3. In the context of the author’s discussion of
regulating change, which of the following could be
most probably regarded as a “strong referee” (line
30) in the United States?
(A) A school principal
(B) A political theorist
(C) A federal court judge
(D) A social worker
(E) A government inspector
4. The author sets off the word “Reform” (line 35) with
quotation marks in order to
(A) emphasize its departure from the concept of
(B) show his support for a systematic program of
(C) underscore the flexibility and even amorphousness
of United States society.
(D) indicate that the term was one of Wilson’s favorites
(E) assert that reform in the United States has not
5. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
most probably thinks that giving the disenfranchised
“a piece of the action ” (line 38) is
(A) a compassionate, if misdirected, legislative
(B) an example of Americans’ resistance to profound
(C) an innovative program for genuine social reform
(D) a monument to the efforts of industrial reformers
(E) a surprisingly “Old World” remedy for social ills
6. Which of the following metaphors could the author
most appropriately use to summarize his own
assessment of the American economic system
(A) A windmill
(B) A waterfall
(C) A treadmill
(D) A gyroscope
(E) A bellows
7. It can be inferred from the passage that Woodrow
Wilson’s ideas about the economic market
(A) encouraged those who “make the system work”
(B) perpetuated traditional legends about America
(C) revealed the prejudices of a man born wealthy
(D) foreshadowed the stock market crash of 1929
(E) began a tradition of presidential proclamations on
8. The passage contains information that would answer
which of the following questions?
Ⅰ.What techniques have industrialists used to
manipulate a free market?
Ⅱ.In what ways are “ New World” and “ Old World”
economic policies similar?
Ⅲ. Has economic policy in the United States tended
to reward independent action?
(C) Ⅲ only
(D) Ⅰand Ⅱ only
(E) Ⅱand Ⅲ only
9. Which of the following best expresses the author’s
(A) Americans’ pride in their jobs continues to give
them stamina today.
(B) The absence of a status quo ante has
undermined United States economic structure.
(C) The free enterprise system has been only a
useless concept in the United States
(D) The myth of the American free enterprise system
is seriously flawed.
(E) Fascination with the ideal of “openness” has
made Americans a progressive people.
No very satisfactory account of the mechanism
that caused the formation of the ocean basins has
yet been given. The traditional view supposes
that the upper mantle of the earth behaves as a
(5) liquid when it is subjected to small forces for
long periods and that differences in temperature
under oceans and continents are sufficient to
produce convection in the mantle of the earth
with rising convection currents under the mid-
(10) ocean ridges and sinking currents under the con-
tinents. Theoretically, this convection would
carry the continental plates along as though they
were on a conveyor belt and would provide the
forces needed to produce the split that occurs
(15) along the ridge. This view may be correct: it has
the advantage that the currents are driven by
temperature differences that themselves depend
on the position of the continents. Such a back-
coupling, in which the position of the moving
(20) plate has an impact on the forces that move it,
could produce complicated and varying motions.
On the other hand, the theory is implausible
because convection does not normally occur
along lines. and it certainly does not occur along
(25) lines broken by frequent offsets or changes in
direction, as the ridge is. Also it is difficult to see
how the theory applies to the plate between the
Mid-Atlantic Ridge and the ridge in the Indian
Ocean. This plate is growing on both sides, and
(30) since there is no intermediate trench, the two
ridges must be moving apart. It would be odd if
the rising convection currents kept exact pace
with them. An alternative theory is that the sink-
ing part of the plate, which is denser than the
(35) hotter surrounding mantle, pulls the rest of the
plate after it. Again it is difficult to see how this
applies to the ridge in the South Atlantic, where
neither the African nor the American plate has a
(40) Another possibility is that the sinking plate
cools the neighboring mantle and produces con-
vection currents that move the plates. This last
theory is attractive because it gives some hope of
explaining the enclosed seas, such as the Sea of
(45) Japan. These seas have a typical oceanic floor,
except that the floor is overlaid by several kilo-
meters of sediment. Their floors have probably
been sinking for long periods. It seems possible
that a sinking current of cooled mantle material
(50) on the upper side of the plate might be the cause
of such deep basins. The enclosed seas are an
important feature of the earth’s surface, and
seriously require explanation in because, addi-
tion to the enclosed seas that are developing at
present behind island arcs, there are a number of
(55) older ones of possibly similar origin, such as the
Gulf of Mexico, the Black Sea, and perhaps the
1. According to the traditional view of the origin of the
ocean basins, which of the following is sufficient to
move the continental plates?
(A) Increases in sedimentation on ocean floors
(B) Spreading of ocean trenches
(C) Movement of mid-ocean ridges
(D) Sinking of ocean basins
(E) Differences in temperature under oceans and
2. It can be inferred from the passage that, of the follo-
wing, the deepest sediments would be found in the
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Black Sea
(D) South Atlantic
3. The author refers to a “conveyor belt ” in line 13 in
(A) illustrate the effects of convection in the mantle
(B) show how temperature differences depend on
the positions of the continents
(C) demonstrate the linear nature of the Mid-Atlantic
(D) describe the complicated motions made possible
(E) account for the rising currents under certain mid-
4. The author regards the traditional view of the origin
of the oceans with
(A) slight apprehension
(B) absolute indifference
(C) indignant anger
(D) complete disbelief
(E) guarded skepticism
5. According to the passage, which of the following are
separated by a plate that is growing on both sides?
(A) The Pacific Ocean and the Sea of Japan
(B) The South Atlantic Ridge and the North Sea Ridge
(C) The Gulf of Mexico and the South Atlantic Ridge
(D) The Mid-Atlantic Ridge and the Indian Ocean
(E) The Black Sea and the Sea of Japan
6. Which of the following, if it could be demonstrated,
would most support the traditional view of ocean
(A) Convection usually occurs along lines.
(B) The upper mantle behaves as a dense solid.
(C) Sedimentation occurs at a constant rate.
(D) Sinking plates cool the mantle.
(E) Island arcs surround enclosed seas.
7. According to the passage, the floor of the Black Sea
can best be compared to a
(A) rapidly moving conveyor belt
(B) slowly settling foundation
(C) rapidly expanding balloon
(D) violently erupting volcano
(E) slowly eroding mountain
8. Which of the following titles would best describe the
content of the passage?
(A) A Description of the Oceans of the World
(B) Several Theories of Ocean Basin Formation
(C) The Traditional View of the Oceans
(D) Convection and Ocean Currents
(E) Temperature Differences Among the Oceans of
The fossil remains of the first flying vertebrates, the
pterosaurs, have intrigued paleontologists for more
than two centuries. How such large creatures, which
weighed in some cases as much as a piloted hang-glider
(5) and had wingspans from 8 to 12 meters, solved the
problems of powered flight, and exactly what these
creatures were–reptiles or birds-are among the ques-
tions scientists have puzzled over.
Perhaps the least controversial assertion about the
(10) pterosaurs is that they were reptiles. Their skulls,
pelvises, and hind feet are reptilian. The anatomy of
their wings suggests that they did not evolve into the
class of birds. In pterosaurs a greatly elongated fourth
finger of each forelimb supported a winglike membrane.
(15) The other fingers were short and reptilian, with sharp
claws. In birds the second finger is the principal strut
of the wing, which consists primarily of feathers. If the
pterosaurs walked on all fours, the three short fingers
may have been employed for grasping. When a
(20) pterosaur walked or remained stationary, the fourth
finger, and with it the wing, could only turn upward in
an extended inverted V-shape along each side of the animal’s body.
The pterosaurs resembled both birds and bats in
(25) their overall structure and proportions. This is not sur-
prising because the design of any flying vertebrate is
subject to aerodynamic constraints. Both the pterosaurs
and the birds have hollow bones, a feature that repre-
sents a savings in weight. In the birds, however, these
(30) bones are reinforced more massively by internal struts.
Although scales typically cover reptiles, the
pterosaurs probably had hairy coats. T.H. Huxley rea-
soned that flying vertebrates must have been warm-
blooded because flying implies a high rate of
(35) metabolism, which in turn implies a high internal tem-
perature. Huxley speculated that a coat of hair would
insulate against loss of body heat and might streamline
the body to reduce drag in flight. The recent discovery
of a pterosaur specimen covered in long, dense, and
(40) relatively thick hairlike fossil material was the first clear
evidence that his reasoning was correct.
Efforts to explain how the pterosaurs became air-
borne have led to suggestions that they launched them-
selves by jumping from cliffs, by dropping from trees.
(45) or even by rising into light winds from the crests of
waves. Each hypothesis has its difficulties. The first
wrongly assumes that the pterosaurs’ hind feet rese-
mbled a bat’s and could serve as hooks by which the
animal could hang in preparation for flight. The second
(50) hypothesis seems unlikely because large pterosaurs
could not have landed in trees without damaging their
wings. The third calls for high waves to channel
updrafts. The wind that made such waves however,
might have been too strong for the pterosaurs to
(55) control their flight once airborne.
1. It can be inferred from the passage that scientists now
generally agree that the
(A) enormous wingspan of the pterosaurs enabled
them to fly great distances
(B) structure of the skeleton of the pterosaurs suggests a
close evolutionary relationship to bats
(C) fossil remains of the pterosaurs reveal how they
solved the problem of powered flight
(D) pterosaurs were reptiles
(E) pterosaurs walked on all fours
2. The author views the idea that the pterosaurs
became airborne by rising into light winds created
by waves as
3. According to the passage, the skeleton of a
pterosaur can be distinguished from that of a bird by
(A) size of its wingspan
(B) presence of hollow spaces in its bones
(C) anatomic origin of its wing strut
(D) presence of hooklike projections on its hind feet
(E) location of the shoulder joint joining the wing to its
4. The ideas attributed to T.H. Huxley in the passage
suggest that he would most likely agree with which
of the following statements?
(A) An animal’s brain size has little bearing on its
ability to master complex behaviors.
(B) An animal’s appearance is often influenced by
environmental requirements and physical
(C) Animals within a given family group are unlikely
to change their appearance dramatically over a
period of time.
(D) The origin of flight in vertebrates was an
accidental development rather than the outcome
of specialization or adaptation.
(E) The pterosaurs should be classified as birds, not
5. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
following is characteristic of the pterosaurs?
(A) They were unable to fold their wings when not in
(B) They hung upside down from branches as bats
do before flight.
(C) They flew in order to capture prey.
(D) They were an early stage in the evolution of the
(E) They lived primarily in a forestlike habitat.
6.Which of the following best describes the organization
of the last paragraph of the passage?
(A) New evidence is introduced to support a
traditional point of view.
(B) Three explanations for a phenomenon are
presented, and each is disputed by means of
(C) Three hypotheses are outlined, and evidence
supporting each is given.
(D) Recent discoveries are described, and their
implications for future study are projected
(E) A summary of the material in the preceding
paragraphs is presented, and conclusions are
7. It can be inferred from the passage that some
scientists believe that pterosaurs
(A) lived near large bodies of water
(B) had sharp teeth for tearing food
(C) were attacked and eaten by larger reptiles
(D) had longer tails than many birds
(E) consumed twice their weight daily to maintain
their body temperature
How many really suffer as a result of labor mar-
ket problems? This is one of the most critical yet
contentious social policy questions. In many ways,
our social statistics exaggerate the degree of hard-
(5) ship. Unemployment does not have the same dire
consequences today as it did in the 1930’s when
most of the unemployed were primary breadwin-
ners, when income and earnings were usually much
closer to the margin of subsistence, and when there
(10) were no countervailing social programs for those
failing in the labor market. Increasing affluence, the
rise of families with more than one wage earner, the
growing predominance of secondary earners among
the unemployed, and improved social welfare pro-
(15) tection have unquestionably mitigated the conse-
quences of joblessness. Earnings and income data
also overstate the dimensions of hardship. Among
the millions with hourly earnings at or below the
minimum wage level, the overwhelming majority
(20) are from multiple-earner, relatively affluent
families. Most of those counted by the poverty
statistics are elderly or handicapped or have family
responsibilities which keep them out of the labor
force, so the poverty statistics are by no means an
(25) accurate indicator of labor market pathologies.
Yet there are also many ways our social statistics
underestimate the degree of labor-market-related
hardship. The unemployment counts exclude the
millions of fully employed workers whose wages are
(30) so low that their families remain in poverty. Low
wages and repeated or prolonged unemployment
frequently interact to undermine the capacity for
self-support. Since the number experiencing jobless-
ness at some time during the year is several times
(35)the number unemployed in any month, those who
suffer as a result of forced idleness can equal or
exceed average annual unemployment, even though
only a minority of the jobless in any month really
suffer. For every person counted in the monthly
(40) unemployment tallies, there is another working
part-time because of the inability to find full-time
work, or else outside the labor force but wanting a
job. Finally, income transfers in our country have
always focused on the elderly, disabled, and depen-
(45)dent, neglecting the needs of the working poor, so
that the dramatic expansion of cash and in-kind
transfers does not necessarily mean that those fail-
ing in the labor market are adequately protected.
As a result of such contradictory evidence, it is
(50) uncertain whether those suffering seriously as a
result of thousands or the tens of millions, and,
hence, whether high levels of joblessness can be tol-
erated or must be countered by job creation and
(55) economic stimulus. There is only one area of agree-
ment in this debate—that the existing poverty,
employment, and earnings statistics are inadequate
for one their primary applications, measuring the
consequences of labor market problems.
1. Which of the following is the principal topic of the
(A) What causes labor market pathologies that result
(B) Why income measures are imprecise in measuring
degrees of poverty
(C) Which of the currently used statistical procedures
are the best for estimating the incidence of
hardship that is due to unemployment
(D) Where the areas of agreement are among
poverty, employment, and earnings figures
(E) How social statistics give an unclear picture of the
degree of hardship caused by low wages and
insufficient employment opportunities
2. The author uses “labor market problems” in lines 1-2
to refer to which of the following?
(A) The overall causes of poverty
(B) Deficiencies in the training of the work force
(C) Trade relationships among producers of goods
(D) Shortages of jobs providing adequate income
(E) Strikes and inadequate supplies of labor
3. The author contrasts the 1930’s with the present in
order to show that
(A) more people were unemployed in the 1930’s
(B) unemployment now has less severe effects
(C) social programs are more needed now
(D) there now is a greater proportion of elderly and
handicapped people among those in poverty
(E) poverty has increased since the 1930’s
4.Which of the following proposals best responds to the
issues raised by the author?
(A) Innovative programs using multiple approaches
should be set up to reduce the level of
(B) A compromise should be found between the
positions of those who view joblessness as an
evil greater than economic control and those who
hold the opposite view.
(C) New statistical indices should be developed to
measure the degree to which unemployment and
inadequately paid employment cause suffering.
(D) Consideration should be given to the ways in which
statistics can act as partial causes of the phenomena
that they purport to measure.
(E) The labor force should be restructured so that it
corresponds to the range of job vacancies.
5.The author’s purpose in citing those who are repeatedly
unemployed during a twelve-month period is most
probably to show that
(A) there are several factors that cause the payment
of low wages to some members of the labor force
(B) unemployment statistics can underestimate the
hardship resulting from joblessness
(C) recurrent inadequacies in the labor market can
exist and can cause hardships for individual
(D) a majority of those who are jobless at any one
time to not suffer severe hardship
(E) there are fewer individuals who are without jobs
at some time during a year than would be
expected on the basis of monthly unemployment
6. The author states that the mitigating effect of social
programs involving income transfers on the income
level of low-income people is often not felt by
(A) the employed poor
(B) dependent children in single-earner families
(C) workers who become disabled
(D) retired workers
(E) full-time workers who become unemployed
7. According to the passage, one factor that causes
unemployment and earnings figures to overpredict
the amount of economic hardship is the
(A) recurrence of periods of unemployment for a
group of low-wage workers
(B) possibility that earnings may be received from
more than one job per worker
(C) fact that unemployment counts do not include
those who work for low wages and remain poor
(D) establishment of a system of record-keeping that
makes it possible to compile poverty statistics
(E) prevalence, among low-wage workers and the
unemployed, of members of families in which
others are employed
8. The conclusion stated in lines 33-39 about the
number of people who suffer as a result of forced
idleness depends primarily on the point that
(A) in times of high unemployment, there are some
people who do not remain unemployed for long
(B) the capacity for self-support depends on
receiving moderate-to-high wages
(C) those in forced idleness include, besides the
unemployed, both underemployed part-time
workers and those not actively seeking work
(D) at different times during the year, different people
(E) many of those who are affected by unemploy-
ment are dependents of unemployed workers
9. Which of the following, if true, is the best criticism of
the author’s argument concerning why poverty
statistics cannot properly be used to show the effects of
problems in the labor market?
(A) A short-term increase in the number of those in
poverty can indicate a shortage of jobs because the
basic number of those unable to accept employment
remains approximately constant.
(B) For those who are in poverty as a result of
joblessness, there are social programs available
that provide a minimum standard of living.
(C) Poverty statistics do not consistently agree with
earnings statistics, when each is taken as a
measure of hardship resulting from unemployment.
(D) The elderly and handicapped categories include
many who previously were employed in the labor
(E) Since the labor market is global in nature, poor
workers in one country are competing with poor
workers in another with respect to the level of
wages and the existence of jobs.
In the eighteenth century, Japan’s feudal
overlords, from the shogun to the humblest
samurai, found themselves under financial
stress. In part, this stress can be attributed to
(5) the overlords’ failure to adjust to a rapidly ex-
panding economy, but the stress was also due to
factors beyond the overlords’ control. Concen-
tration of the samurai in castle-towns had acted
as a stimulus to trade. Commercial efficiency, in
(10) turn, had put temptations in the way of buyers.
Since most samurai had been reduced to idleness
by years of peace, encouraged to engage in
scholarship and martial exercises or to perform
administrative tasks that took little time, it is
(15) not surprising that their tastes and habits grew
expensive. Overlords’ income, despite the in-
crease in rice production among their tenant
farmers, failed to keep pace with their expenses.
Although shortfalls in overlords’ income re-
(20) sulted almost as much from laxity among their
tax collectors (the nearly inevitable outcome of
hereditary officeholding) as from their higher
standards of living, a misfortune like a fire or
flood, bringing an increase in expenses or a drop
(25) in revenue, could put a domain in debt to the
city rice-brokers who handled its finances. Once
in debt, neither the individual samurai nor the
shogun himself found it easy to recover.
It was difficult for individual samurai over-
(30) lords to increase their income because the
amount of rice that farmers could be made to
pay in taxes was not unlimited, and since the in-
come of Japan’s central government consisted in
part of taxes collected by the shogun from his
(35) huge domain, the government too was con-
strained. Therefore, the Tokugawa shoguns
began to look to other sources for revenue.
Cash profits from government-owned mines
were already on the decline because the most
(40) easily worked deposits of silver and gold had
been exhausted, although debasement of the
coinage had compensated for the loss. Opening
up new farmland was a possibility, but most of
what was suitable had already been exploited
(45) and further reclamation was technically unfeasi-
ble. Direct taxation of the samurai themselves
would be politically dangerous. This left the
shoguns only commerce as a potential source of
(50) Most of the country’s wealth, or so it seemed,
was finding its way into the hands of city mer-
chants. It appeared reasonable that they should
contribute part of that revenue to ease the
shogun’s burden of financing the state. A means
(55) of obtaining such revenue was soon found by
levying forced ioans, known as goyo-kin;
although these were not taxes in the strict sense,
since they were irregular in timing and arbitrary
in amount, they were high in yield. Unfortunately,
(60) they pushed up prices. Thus, regrettably, the
Tokugawa shoguns’ search for solvency for the
government made it increasingly difficult for
individual Japanese who lived on fixed stipends
to make ends meet.
1. The passage is most probably an excerpt from
(A) an economic history of Japan
(B) the memoirs of a samurai warrior
(C) a modern novel about eighteenth-century Japan
(D) an essay contrasting Japanese feudalism with its
(E) an introduction to a collection of Japanese folktales
2. Which of the following financial situations is most
analogous to the financial situation in which Japan’s
Tokugawa shoguns found themselves in the eighteenth
(A) A small business borrows heavily to invest in new
equipment, but is able to pay off its debt early
when it is awarded a lucrative government contract.
(B) Fire destroys a small business, but insurance covers
the cost of rebuilding.
(C) A small business is turned down for a loan at a
local bank because the owners have no credit
(D) A small business has to struggle to meet operating
expenses when its profits decrease.
(E) A small business is able to cut back sharply on
spending through greater commercial efficiency
and thereby compensate for a loss of revenue.
3. Which of the following best describes the attitude of
the author toward the samurai discussed in lines
(A) Warmly approving
(B) Mildly sympathetic
(C) Bitterly disappointed
(D) Harshly disdainful
(E) Profoundly shocked
4. According to the passage, the major reason for the
financial problems experienced by Japan’s feudal
overlords in the eighteenth century was that
(A) spending had outdistanced income
(B) trade had fallen off
(C) profits from mining had declined
(D) the coinage had been sharply debased
(E) the samurai had concentrated in castle-towns
5.The passage implies that individual samurai did not
find it easy to recover from debt for which of the
(A) Agricultural production had increased.
(B) Taxes were irregular in timing and arbitrary in
(C) The Japanese government had failed to adjust to
the needs of a changing economy.
(D) The domains of samurai overlords were
becoming smaller and poorer as government
(E) There was a limit to the amount in taxes that
farmers could be made to pay.
6. The passage suggests that, in eighteenth-century
Japan, the office of tax collector
(A) was a source of personal profit to the officeholder
(B) was regarded with derision by many Japanese
(C) remained within families
(D) existed only in castle-towns
(E) took up most of the officeholder’s time
7. Which of the following could best be substituted
for the word “This ” in line 47 without changing the
meaning of the passage?
(A) The search of Japan’s Tokugawa shoguns for
(B) The importance of commerce in feudal Japan
(C) The unfairness of the tax structure in eighteenth-
(D) The difficulty of increasing government income by
(E) The difficulty experienced by both individual
samurai and the shogun himself in extricating
themselves from debt
8. The passage implies that which of the following was
the primary reason why the Tokugawa shoguns
turned to city merchants for help in financing the
(A) A series of costly wars had depleted the national
(B) Most of the country’s wealth appeared to be in
city merchants’ hands.
(C) Japan had suffered a series of economic
reversals due to natural disasters such as
(D) The merchants were already heavily indebted to
(E) Further reclamation of land would not have been
9. According to the passage, the actions of the Tokugawa
shoguns in their search for solvency for the government
were regrettable because those actions
(A) raised the cost of living by pushing up prices
(B) resulted in the exhaustion of the most easily
worked deposits of silver and gold
(C) were far lower in yield than had originally been
(D) did not succeed in reducing government spending
(E) acted as a deterrent to trade
Between the eighth and eleventh centuries A.D., the
Byzantine Empire staged an almost unparalleled
economic and cultural revival, a recovery that is all the
more striking because it followed a long period of severe
(5) internal decline. By the early eighth century, the empire
had lost roughly two-thirds of the territory it had
possessed in the year 600, and its remaining area was
being raided by Arabs and Bulgarians, who at times
threatened to take Constantinople and extinguish the
(10) empire altogether. The wealth of the state and its
subjects was greatly diminished, and artistic and literary
production had virtually ceased. By the early eleventh
century, however, the empire had regained almost half of
its lost possessions, its new frontiers were secure, and its
(15) influence extended far beyond its borders. The economy
had recovered, the treasury was full, and art and scho-
larship had advanced.
To consider the Byzantine military, cultural, and
economic advances as differentiated aspects of a single
(20) phenomenon is reasonable. After all, these three forms
of progress have gone together in a number of states and
civilizations. Rome under Augustus and fifth-century
Athens provide the most obvious examples in antiquity.
Moreover, an examination of the apparent sequential
(25) connections among military, economic, and cultural
forms of progress might help explain the dynamics of
The common explanation of these apparent conn-
ections in the case of Byzantium would run like this:
(30) when the empire had turned back enemy raids on its
own territory and had begun to raid and conquer enemy
territory, Byzantine resources naturally expanded and
more money became available to patronize art and lit-
erature. Therefore, Byzantine military achievements led to
(35) economic advances, which in turn led to cultural revival.
No doubt this hypothetical pattern did apply at times
during the course of the recovery. Yet it is not clear that
military advances invariably came first. economic
advances second, and intellectual advances third. In the
(40) 860’s the Byzantine Empire began to recover from Arab
incursions so that by 872 the military balance with the
Abbasid Caliphate had been permanently altered in the
empire’s favor. The beginning of the empire’s economic
revival, however, can be placed between 810 and 830.
(45) Finally, the Byzantine revival of learning appears to
have begun even earlier. A number of notable scholars
and writers appeared by 788 and, by the last decade of
the eighth century, a cultural revival was in full bloom, a
revival that lasted until the fall of Constantinople in
(50) 1453.Thus the commonly expected order of military
revival followed by economic and then by cultural
recovery was reversed in Byzantium. In fact, the revival
of Byzantine learning may itself have influenced the
subsequent economic and military expansion.
1. Which of the following best states the central idea of
(A) The Byzantine Empire was a unique case in
which the usual order of military and economic
revival preceding cultural revival was reversed.
(B) The economic, cultural, and military revival in the
Byzantine Empire between the eighth and
eleventh centuries was similar in its order to the
sequence of revivals in Augustan Rome and fifth-
(C) After 810 Byzantine economic recovery spurred a
military and, later, cultural expansion that lasted
(D) The eighth-century revival of Byzantine learning
is an inexplicable phenomenon, and its economic
and military precursors have yet to be discovered.
(E) The revival of the Byzantine Empire between the
eighth and eleventh centuries shows cultural
rebirth preceding economic and military revival,
the reverse of the commonly accepted order of
2. The primary purpose of the second paragraph is
which of the following?
(A) To establish the uniqueness of the Byzantine
(B) To show that Augustan Rome and fifth-century
Athens are examples of cultural, economic, and
military expansion against which all subsequent
cases must be measured
(C) To suggest that cultural, economic. and military
advances have tended to be closely interrelated in
(D) To argue that, while the revivals of Augustan
Rome and fifth-century Athens were similar, they
are unrelated to other historical examples
(E) To indicate that, wherever possible, historians
should seek to make comparisons with the
earliest chronological examples of revival
3. It can be inferred from the passage that by the
eleventh century the Byzantine military forces
(A) had reached their peak and begun to decline
(B) had eliminated the Bulgarian army
(C) were comparable in size to the army of Rome
(D) were strong enough to withstand the Abbasid
Caliphate’s military forces
(E) had achieved control of Byzantine governmental
4. It can be inferred from the passage that the Byzantine
Empire sustained significant territorial losses
(A) in 600
(B) during the seventh century
(C) a century after the cultural achievements of the
Byzantine Empire had been lost
(D) soon after the revival of Byzantine learning
(E) in the century after 873
5. In the third paragraph, the author most probably
provides an explanation of the apparent connections
among economic, military, and cultural development
in order to
(A) suggest that the process of revival in Byzantium
accords with this model
(B) set up an order of events that is then shown to be
not generally applicable to the case of Byzantium
(C) cast aspersions on traditional historical
scholarship about Byzantium
(D) suggest that Byzantium represents a case for
which no historical precedent exists
(E) argue that military conquest is the paramount
element in the growth of empires
6. Which of the following does the author mention as
crucial evidence concerning the manner in which
the Byzantine revival began?
(A) The Byzantine military revival of the 860’s led to
economic and cultural advances.
(B) The Byzantine cultural revival lasted until 1453.
(C) The Byzantine economic recovery began in the
(D) The revival of Byzantine learning began toward
the end of the eighth century.
(E) By the early eleventh century the Byzantine
Empire had regained much of its lost territory.
7. According to the author, “The common explanation”
(line 28) of connections between economic, military,
and cultural development is
(A) revolutionary and too new to have been applied
to the history of the Byzantine Empire
(B) reasonable, but an antiquated theory of the nature
(C) not applicable to the Byzantine revival as a whole,
but does perhaps accurately describe limited
periods during the revival
(D) equally applicable to the Byzantine case as a
whole and to the history of military, economic,
and cultural advances in ancient Greece and
(E) essentially not helpful, because military, economic,
and cultural advances are part of a single
Virtually everything astronomers known about objects
outside the solar system is based on the detection of
photons-quanta of electromagnetic radiation. Yet there
is another form of radiation that permeates the universe:
(5) neutrinos. With (as its name implies) no electric charge,
and negligible mass, the neutrino interacts with other
particles so rarely that a neutrino can cross the entire
universe, even traversing substantial aggregations of
matter, without being absorbed or even deflected. Neu-
(10) trinos can thus escape from regions of space where light
and other kinds of electromagnetic radiation are blocked
by matter. Furthermore, neutrinos carry with them
information about the site and circumstances of their
production: therefore, the detection of cosmic neutrinos
(15) could provide new information about a wide variety of
cosmic phenomena and about the history of the uni-
But how can scientists detect a particle that interacts
so infrequently with other matter? Twenty-five years
(20) passed between Pauli’s hypothesis that the neutrino
existed and its actual detection: since then virtually all
research with neutrinos has been with neutrinos created
artificially in large particle accelerators and studied
under neutrino microscopes. But a neutrino telescope,
(25) capable of detecting cosmic neutrinos, is difficult to co-
nstruct. No apparatus can detect neutrinos unless it is
extremely massive, because great mass is synonymous
with huge numbers of nucleons (neutrons and protons),
and the more massive the detector, the greater the pro-
(30) bability of one of its nucleon’s reacting with a neutrino.
In addition, the apparatus must be sufficiently shielded
from the interfering effects of other particles.
Fortunately, a group of astrophysicists has proposed
a means of detecting cosmic neutrinos by harnessing the
(35) mass of the ocean. Named DUMAND, for Deep Under-
water Muon and Neutrino Detector, the project calls for
placing an array of light sensors at a depth of five kilo-
meters under the ocean surface. The detecting medium is
the seawater itself: when a neutrino interacts with a
(40)particle in an atom of seawater. the result is a cascade of
electrically charged particles and a flash of light that can
be detected by the sensors. The five kilometers of sea-
water above the sensors will shield them from the interf-
ering effects of other high-energy particles raining down
(45) through the atmosphere.
The strongest motivation for the DUMAND project
is that it will exploit an important source of information
about the universe. The extension of astronomy from
visible light to radio waves to x-rays and gamma rays
(50) never failed to lead to the discovery of unusual objects
such as radio galaxies, quasars, and pulsars. Each of
these discoveries came as a surprise. Neutrino astronomy
will doubtless bring its own share of surprises.
1. Which of the following titles best summarizes the
passage as a whole?
(A) At the Threshold of Neutrino Astronomy
(B) Neutrinos and the History of the Universe
(C) The Creation and Study of Neutrinos
(D) The DUMAND System and How It Works
(E) The Properties of the Neutrino
2. With which of the following statements regarding
neutrino astronomy would the author be most likely
(A) Neutrino astronomy will supersede all present
forms of astronomy.
(B) Neutrino astronomy will be abandoned if the
DUMAND project fails.
(C) Neutrino astronomy can be expected to lead to
major breakthroughs in astronomy.
(D) Neutrino astronomy will disclose phenomena that
will be more surprising than past discoveries.
(E) Neutrino astronomy will always be characterized
by a large time lag between hypothesis and
3. In the last paragraph, the author describes the
development of astronomy in order to
(A) suggest that the potential findings of neutrino
astronomy can be seen as part of a series of
(B) illustrate the role of surprise in scientific discovery
(C) demonstrate the effectiveness of the DUMAND
apparatus in detecting neutrinos
(D) name some cosmic phenomena that neutrino
astronomy will illuminate
(E) contrast the motivation of earlier astronomers with
that of the astrophysicists working on the
4.According to the passage, one advantage that neutrinos
have for studies in astronomy is that they
(A) have been detected for the last twenty-five years
(B) possess a variable electric charge
(C) are usually extremely massive
(D) carry information about their history with them
(E) are very similar to other electromagnetic particles
5. According to the passage, the primary use of the
apparatus mentioned in lines 24-32 would be to
(A) increase the mass of a neutrino
(B) interpret the information neutrinos carry with them
(C) study the internal structure of a neutrino
(D) see neutrinos in distant regions of space
(E) detect the presence of cosmic neutrinos
6. The passage states that interactions between neutrinos
and other matter are
7. The passage mentions which of the following as a
reason that neutrinos are hard to detect?
(A) Their pervasiveness in the universe
(B) Their ability to escape from different regions of
(C) Their inability to penetrate dense matter
(D) The similarity of their structure to that of nucleons
(E) The infrequency of their interaction with other
8. According to the passage, the interaction of a neutrino
with other matter can produce
(A) particles that are neutral and massive
(B) a form of radiation that permeates the universe
(C) inaccurate information about the site and
circumstances of the neutrino’s production
(D) charged particles and light
(E) a situation in which light and other forms of
electromagnetic radiation are blocked
9. According to the passage, one of the methods used to
establish the properties of neutrinos was
(A) detection of photons
(B) observation of the interaction of neutrinos with
(C) observation of neutrinos that were artificially
(D) measurement of neutrinos that interacted with
particles of seawater
(E) experiments with electromagnetic radiation
Most economists in the united States seem
captivated by the spell of the free market. Conse-
quently, nothing seems good or normal that does
not accord with the requirements of the free market.
(5) A price that is determined by the seller or, for
that matter, established by anyone other than the
aggregate of consumers seems pernicious. Accord-
ingly, it requires a major act of will to think of
price-fixing (the determination of prices by the
(10) seller) as both “normal” and having a valuable
economic function. In fact, price-fixing is normal
in all industrialized societies because the indus-
trial system itself provides, as an effortless conse-
quence of its own development, the price-fixing
(15) that it requires. Modern industrial planning
requires and rewards great size. Hence,
a comparatively small number of large firms will
be competing for the same group of consumers.
That each large firm will act with consideration of
(20) its own needs and thus avoid selling its products
for more than its competitors charge is commonly
recognized by advocates of free-market economic
theories. But each large firm will also act with
full consideration of the needs that it has in
(25) common with the other large firms competing for
the same customers. Each large firm will thus
avoid significant price-cutting, because price-
cutting would be prejudicial to the common interest
in a stable demand for products. Most economists
(30) do not see price-fixing when it occurs because
they expect it to be brought about by a number of
explicit agreements among large firms; it is not.
Moreover, those economists who argue that
allowing the free market to operate without inter-
(35) ference is the most efficient method of establishing
prices have not considered the economies of non-
socialist countries other than the United states.
These economies employ intentional price-fixing,
usually in an overt fashion. Formal price-fixing
(40) by cartel and informal price-fixing by agreements
covering the members of an industry are common-
place. Were there something peculiarly efficient
about the free market and inefficient about price-
fixing, the countries that have avoided the first
(45) and used the second would have suffered drastically
in their economic development. There is no indica-
tion that they have.
Socialist industry also works within a frame-
work of controlled prices. In the early 1970’s,
(50) the Soviet Union began to give firms and industries
some of the flexibility in adjusting prices that a
more informal evolution has accorded the capitalist
system. Economists in the United States have
hailed the change as a return to the free market.
(55) But Soviet firms are no more subject to prices
established by a free market over which they
exercise little influence than are capitalist firms;
rather, Soviet firms have been given the power to
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) refute the theory that the free market plays a
useful role in the development of industrialized
(B) suggest methods by which economists and members
of the government of the United States can
recognize and combat price-fixing by large firms
(C) show that in industrialized societies price-fixing and
the operation of the free market are not only
compatible but also mutually beneficial
(D) explain the various ways in which industrialized
societies can fix prices in order to stabilize the free
(E) argue that price-fixing, in one form or another, is an
inevitable part of and benefit to the economy of any
2. The passage provides information that would answer
which of the following questions about price-fixing?
Ⅰ.What are some of the ways in which prices can be
Ⅱ. For what products is price-fixing likely to be more
profitable that the operation of the free market?
Ⅲ.Is price-fixing more common in socialist
industrialized societies or in nonsocialist
(B) Ⅲ only
(C) Ⅰand Ⅱonly
(D) Ⅱand Ⅲ only
(E) Ⅰ,Ⅱ,and Ⅲ
3. The author’s attitude toward “Most economists in the
United States”(line 1) can best be described as
(A) spiteful and envious
(B) scornful and denunciatory
(C) critical and condescending
(D) ambivalent but deferential
(E) uncertain but interested
4. It can be inferred from the author’s argument that a
price fixed by the seller “seems pernicious”(line 7)
(A) people do not have confidence in large firms
(B) people do not expect the government to
(C) most economists believe that consumers as a
group should determine prices
(D) most economists associate fixed prices with
communist and socialist economies
(E) most economists believe that no one group
should determine prices
5. The suggestion in the passage that price-fixing in
industrialized societies is normal arises from the
author’s statement that price-fixing is
(A) a profitable result of economic development
(B) an inevitable result of the industrial system
(C) the result of a number of carefully organized
(D) a phenomenon common to industrialized and
(E) a phenomenon best achieved cooperatively by
government and industry
6. According to the author, price-fixing in nonsocialist
countries is often
(A) accidental but productive
(B) illegal but useful
(C) legal and innovative
(D) traditional and rigid
(E) intentional and widespread
7. According to the author, what is the result of the Soviet
Union’s change in economic policy in the 1970’s
(A) Soviet firms show greater profit.
(B) Soviet firms have less control over the free market.
(C) Soviet firms are able to adjust to tech nological
(D) Soviet firms have some authority to fix prices.
(E) Soviet firms are more responsive to the free market.
8. With which of the following statements regarding the
behavior of large firms in industrialized societies
would the author be most likely to agree?
(A) The directors of large firms will continue to
anticipate the demand for products
(B) The directors of large firms are less interested in
achieving a predictable level of profit than in
achieving a large profit.
(C) The directors of large firms will strive to reduce the
costs of their products
(D) Many directors of large firms believe that the
government should establish the prices that will be
charged for products
(E) Many directors of large firms believe that the price
charged for products is likely to increase annually.
9. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with
(A) predicting the consequences of a practice
(B) criticizing a point of view
(C) calling attention to recent discoveries
(D) proposing a topic for research
(E) summarizing conflicting opinions
Caffeine, the stimulant in coffee, has been called
“the most widely used psychoactive substance on Earth .”
Synder, Daly and Bruns have recently proposed that
caffeine affects behavior by countering the activity in
(5) the human brain of a naturally occurring chemical called
adenosine. Adenosine normally depresses neuron firing
in many areas of the brain. It apparently does this by
inhibiting the release of neurotransmitters, chemicals
that carry nerve impulses from one neuron to the next.
(10) Like many other agents that affect neuron firing,
adenosine must first bind to specific receptors on
neuronal membranes. There are at least two classes
of these receptors, which have been designated A1 and
A2. Snyder et al propose that caffeine, which is struc-
(15) turally similar to adenosine, is able to bind to both types
of receptors, which prevents adenosine from attaching
there and allows the neurons to fire more readily than
they otherwise would.
For many years, caffeine’s effects have been attri-
(20) buted to its inhibition of the production of phosphodi-
esterase, an enzyme that breaks down the chemical
called cyclic AMP.A number of neurotransmitters exert
their effects by first increasing cyclic AMP concentra-
tions in target neurons. Therefore, prolonged periods at
(25) the elevated concentrations, as might be brought about
by a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, could lead to a greater
amount of neuron firing and, consequently, to behav-
ioral stimulation. But Snyder et al point out that the
caffeine concentrations needed to inhibit the production
(30) of phosphodiesterase in the brain are much higher than
those that produce stimulation. Moreover, other com-
pounds that block phosphodiesterase’s activity are not
To buttress their case that caffeine acts instead by pre-
(35) venting adenosine binding, Snyder et al compared the
stimulatory effects of a series of caffeine derivatives with
their ability to dislodge adenosine from its receptors in
the brains of mice. “In general,” they reported, “the ability of the compounds to compete at the receptors
(40) correlates with their ability to stimulate locomotion in
the mouse; i.e., the higher their capacity to bind at the
receptors, the higher their ability to stimulate locomo-
tion.” Theophylline, a close structural relative of caffeine
and the major stimulant in tea, was one of the most
(45) effective compounds in both regards.
There were some apparent exceptions to the general
correlation observed between adenosine-receptor binding
and stimulation. One of these was a compound called
3-isobuty1-1-methylxanthine(IBMX), which bound very
(50) well but actually depressed mouse locomotion. Snyder
et al suggest that this is not a major stumbling block to
their hypothesis. The problem is that the compound has
mixed effects in the brain, a not unusual occurrence with
psychoactive drugs. Even caffeine, which is generally
(55) known only for its stimulatory effects, displays this
property, depressing mouse locomotion at very low
concentrations and stimulating it at higher ones.
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) discuss a plan for investigation of a phenomenon
that is not yet fully understood
(B) present two explanations of a phenomenon and
reconcile the differences between them
(C) summarize two theories and suggest a third theory
that overcomes the problems encountered in the first
(D) describe an alternative hypothesis and provide
evidence and arguments that support it
(E) challenge the validity of a theory by exposing the
inconsistencies and contradictions in it
2. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the
theory proposed by Snyder et al?
(A) At very low concentrations in the human brain. both
caffeine and theophylline tend to have depressive
rather than stimulatory effects on human behavior.
(B) The ability of caffeine derivatives at very low
concentrations to dislodge adenosine from its
receptors in mouse brains correlates well with their
ability to stimulate mouse locomotion at these low
(C) The concentration of cyclic AMP in target neurons
in the human brain that leads to increased neuron
firing can be produced by several different
phosphodi esterase inhibitors in addition to caffeine.
(D) The concentration of caffeine required to dislodge
adenosine from its receptors in the human brain is
much greater than the concentration that produces
behavioral stimulation in humans.
(E) The concentration of IBMX required to dislodge
adenosine from its receptors in mouse brains is much
smaller than the concentration that stimulates
locomotion in the mouse.
3. According so Snyder et al, caffeine differs from
adenosine in that caffeine
(A) stimulates behavior in the mouse and in humans,
whereas adenosine stimulates behavior in humans
(B) has mixed effects in the brain, whereas adenosine
has only a stimulatory effect
(C) increases cyclic AMP concentrations in target
neurons, whereas adenosine decreases such
(D) permits release of neurotransmitters when it is
bound to adenosine receptors, whereas adenosine
inhibits such release
(E) inhibits both neuron firing and the production of
phosphodiesterase when there is a sufficient
concentration in the brain, whereas adenosine
inhibits only neuron firing
4. In response to experimental results concerning IBMX,
Snyder et al contended that it is not uncommon for
psychoactive drugs to have
(A) mixed effects in the brain
(B) inhibitory effects on enzymes in the brain
(C) close structural relationships with caffeine
(D) depressive effects on mouse locomotion
(E) the ability to dislodge caffeine from receptors
in the brain
5. The passage suggests that Snyder et al believe that if the
older theory concerning caffeine’s effects were correct,
which of the following would have to be the case?
Ⅰ.All neurotransmitters would increase the short-term
concentration of cyclic AMP in target neurons.
Ⅱ.Substances other than caffeine that inhibit the
production of phosphodiesterase would be stimulants.
Ⅲ.All concentration levels of caffeine that are high
enough to produce stimulation would also inhibit the
production of phosphodiesterase.
(A) Ⅰ only
(B) Ⅰ and Ⅱ only
(C) Ⅰand Ⅲ only
(D) Ⅱ and Ⅲ only
(E) Ⅰ,Ⅱ,and Ⅲ
6. According to Snyder et al, all of the following
compounds can bind to specific receptors in the brain
7. Snyder et al suggest that caffeine’s ability to bind to A1
and A2 receptors can be at least partially attributed to
which of the following?
(A) The chemical relationship between caffeine and
(B) The structural relationship between caffeine and
(C) The structural similarity between caffeine and
(D) The ability of caffeine to stimulate behavior
(E) The natural occurrence of caffeine and adenosine in
8. The author quotes Snyder et al in lines 38-43 most
probably in order to
(A) reveal some of the assumptions underlying their
(B) summarize a major finding of their experiments
(C) point out that their experiments were limited to the
(D) indicate that their experiments resulted only in
(E) refute the objections made by supporters of the older
9. The last paragraph of the passage performs which of the
(A) Describes a disconfirming experimental result
and reports the explanation given by Snyder et al in
an attempt to reconcile this result with their theory.
(B) Specifies the basis for the correlation observed by
Snyder et al and presents an explanation in an
attempt to make the correlation consistent with the
operation of psychoactive drugs other than caffeine.
(C) Elaborates the description of the correlation
observed by Snyder et al and suggests an additional
explanation in an attempt to make the correlation
consistent with the older theory.
(D) Reports inconsistent experimental data and
describes the method Snyder et al will use to
reanalyze this data.
(E) Provides an example of the hypothesis proposed by
Snyder et al and relates this example to caffeine’s
Archaeology as a profession faces two major prob-
lems. First, it is the poorest of the poor. Only paltry
sums are available for excavating and even less is avail-
able for publishing the results and preserving the sites
(5) once excavated. Yet archaeologists deal with priceless
objects every day. Second, there is the problem of illegal
excavation, resulting in museum-quality pieces being
sold to the highest bidder.
I would like to make an outrageous suggestion that
(10) would at one stroke provide funds for archaeology and
reduce the amount of illegal digging. I would propose
that scientific archeological expeditions and govern-
mental authorities sell excavated artifacts on the open
market. Such sales would provide substantial funds for
(15) the excavation and preservation of archaeological sites
and the publication of results. At the same time, they
would break the illegal excavator’s grip on the market,
thereby decreasing the inducement to engage in illegal
(20) You might object that professionals excavate to
acquire knowledge, not money. Moreover, ancient arti-
facts are part of our global cultural heritage, which
should be available for all to appreciate, not sold to the
highest bidder. I agree. Sell nothing that has unique
(25) artistic merit or scientific value. But, you might reply,
everything that comes our of the ground has scientific
value. Here we part company. Theoretically, you may be
correct in claiming that every artifact has potential scien-
tific value. Practically, you are wrong.
(30) I refer to the thousands of pottery vessels and ancient
lamps that are essentially duplicates of one another. In
one small excavation in Cyprus, archaeologists recently
uncovered 2,000 virtually indistinguishable small jugs in
a single courtyard, Even precious royal seal impressions
(35) known as/melekh handles have been found in abun-
dance—more than 4,000 examples so far.
The basements of museums are simply not large
enough to store the artifacts that are likely to be discov-
ered in the future. There is not enough money even to
(40) catalogue the finds; as a result, they cannot be found
again and become as inaccessible as if they had never
been discovered. Indeed, with the help of a computer,
sold artifacts could be more accessible than are the
pieces stored in bulging museum basements. Prior to
(45) sale, each could be photographed and the list of the
purchasers could be maintained on the computer A
purchaser could even be required to agree to return the
piece if it should become needed for scientific purposes.
It would be unrealistic to suggest that illegal digging
(50) would stop if artifacts were sold on the open market.
But the demand for the clandestine product would be
substantially reduced. Who would want an unmarked
pot when another was available whose provenance was
known, and that was dated stratigraphically by the
professional archaeologist who excavated it?
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to propose
(A) an alternative to museum display of artifacts
(B) a way to curb illegal digging while benefiting the
(C) a way to distinguish artifacts with scientific value
from those that have no such value
(D) the governmental regulation of archaeological sites
(E) a new system for cataloguing duplicate artifacts
2. The author implies that all of the following statements
about duplicate artifacts are true EXCEPT:
(A) A market for such artifacts already exists.
(B) Such artifacts seldom have scientific value.
(C) There is likely to be a continuing supply of such
(D) Museums are well supplied with examples of such
(E) Such artifacts frequently exceed in quality those
already catalogued in museum collections.
3. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a
disadvantage of storing artifacts in museum
(A) Museum officials rarely allow scholars access to
(B) Space that could be better used for display is taken
up for storage.
(C) Artifacts discovered in one excavation often become
separated from each other.
(D) Such artifacts are often damaged by variations in
temperature and humidity.
(E) Such artifacts’ often remain uncatalogued and thus
cannot be located once they are put in storage.
4. The author mentions the excavation in Cyprus (lines
31-34) to emphasize which of the following points?
(A) Ancient lamps and pottery vessels are less valuable,
although more rare, than royal seal impressions.
(B) Artifacts that are very similar to each other present
cataloguing difficulties to archaeologists.
(C) Artifacts that are not uniquely valuable, and
therefore could be sold, are available in large
(D) Cyprus is the most important location for unearthing
large quantities of salable artifacts.
(E) Illegal sales of duplicate artifacts are wide-spread,
particularly on the island of Cyprus.
5. The author’s argument concerning the effect of the
official sale of duplicate artifacts on illegal excavation
is based on which of the following assumptions?
(A) Prospective purchasers would prefer to buy
(B) The price of illegally excavated artifacts would rise.
(C) Computers could be used to trace sold artifacts.
(D) Illegal excavators would be forced to sell only
(E) Money gained from selling authenticated artifacts
could be used to investigate and prosecute illegal
6. The author anticipates which of the following initial
objections to the adoption of his proposal?
(A) Museum officials will become unwilling to store
(B) An oversupply of salable artifacts will result and the
demand for them will fall.
(C) Artifacts that would have been displayed in public
places will be sold to private collectors.
(D) Illegal excavators will have an even larger supply of
artifacts for resale.
(E) Counterfeiting of artifacts will become more
7. The author implies that which of the following would
occur if duplicate artifacts were sold on the open
Ⅰ.Illegal excavation would eventually cease
Ⅱ.Cyprus would become the primary source of
marketable duplicate artifacts
Ⅲ.Archaeologists would be able to publish the
results of their excavations more frequently
than they currently do.
(B) Ⅲ only
(C) Ⅰand Ⅱonly
(D) Ⅱ and Ⅲ only
(E) Ⅰ,Ⅱ,and Ⅲ
Federal efforts to aid minority businesses began in the
1960’s when the Small Business Administration (SBA)
began making federally guaranteed loans and govern-
ment-sponsored management and technical assistance
(5) available to minority business enterprises. While this
program enabled many minority entrepreneurs to
form new businesses, the results were disappointing,
since managerial inexperience, unfavorable locations,
and capital shortages led to high failure rates. Even 15
(10) years after the program was implemented, minority
business receipts were not quite two percent of the national
economy’s total receipts.
Recently federal policymakers have adopted an
approach intended to accelerate development of the
(15) minority business sector by moving away from directly
aiding small minority enterprises and toward supporting
larger, growth-oriented minority firms through interme-
diary companies. In this approach, large corporations
participate in the development of successful and stable
(20) minority businesses by making use of government-
sponsored venture capital. The capital is used by a
participating company to establish a Minority Enterprise
Small Business Investment Company or MESBIC. The
MESBIC then provides capital and guidance to minority
(25) businesses that have potential to become future suppliers
or customers of the sponsoring company.
MESBIC’s are the result of the belief that providing
established firms with easier access to relevant manage-
ment techniques and more job-specific experience, as
(30) well as substantial amounts of capital, gives those firms
a greater opportunity to develop sound business founda-
tions than does simply making general management
experience and small amounts of capital available.
Further, since potential markets for the minority busi-
(35) nesses already exist through the sponsoring companies,
the minority businesses face considerably less risk in
terms of location and market fluctuation. Following
early financial and operating problems, sponsoring
corporations began to capitalize MESBIC’s far above
(40) the legal minimum of $500,000 in order to generate
sufficient income and to sustain the quality of manage-
ment needed. MESBIC’c are now emerging as increas-
ingly important financing sources for minority enter-
(45) Ironically, MESBIC staffs, which usually consist of
Hispanic and Black professionals, tend to approach
investments in minority firms more pragmatically than
do many MESBIC directors, who are usually senior
managers from sponsoring corporations. The latter
(50) often still think mainly in terms of the “social responsi-
bility approach” and thus seem to prefer deals that are
riskier and less attractive than normal investment criteria
would warrant. Such differences in viewpoint have pro-
duced uneasiness among many minority staff members,
(55) who feel that minority entrepreneurs and businesses
should be judged by established business considerations.
These staff members believe their point of view is closer
to the original philosophy of MESBIC’s and they are
concerned that, unless a more prudent course is fol-
lowed, MESBIC directors may revert to policies likely to re-create the disappointing results of the original SBA
1. Which of the following best states the central idea of
(A) The use of MESBIC’s for aiding minority
entrepreneurs seems to have greater potential for
success than does the original SBA approach.
(B) There is a crucial difference in point of view
between the staff and directors of some MESBIC’s.
(C) After initial problems with management and
marketing, minority businesses have begun to
expand at a steady rate.
(D) Minority entrepreneurs wishing to form new
businesses now have several equally successful
federal programs on which to rely.
(E) For the first time since 1960, large corporations are
making significant contributions to the development
of minority businesses.
2. According to the passage, the MESBIC approach
differs from the SBA approach in that MESBIC’s
(A) seek federal contracts to provide markets
for minority businesses
(B) encourage minority businesses to provide markets
for other minority businesses
(C) attempt to maintain a specified rate of growth in the
minority business sector
(D) rely on the participation of large corporations to
finance minority businesses
(E) select minority businesses on the basis of their
3. Which of the following does the author cite to support
the conclusion that the results of the SBA program
(A) The small number of new minority enterprises
formed as a result of the program
(B) The small number of minority enterprises that took
advantage of the management and technical
assistance offiered under the program
(C) The small percentage of the nation’s business
receipts earned by minority enterprises following
the programs, implementation.
(D) The small percentage of recipient minority
enterprises that were able to repay federally
guaranteed loans made under the program
(E) The small number of minority enterprises that
chose to participate in the program
4. Which of the following statements about the SBA
program can be inferred from the passage?
(A) The maximum term for loans made to recipient
businesses was 15 years.
(B) Business loans were considered to be more useful to
recipient businesses than was management and
(C) The anticipated failure rate for recipient businesses
was significantly lower than the rate that actually
(D) Recipient businesses were encouraged to relocate to
areas more favorable for business development.
(E) The capitalization needs of recipient businesses were
assessed and then provided for adequately.
5. Based on information in the passage, which of the
following would be indicative of the pragmatism of
MESBIC staff members?
Ⅰ.A reluctance to invest in minority businesses
that show marginal expectations of return on
Ⅱ. A desire to invest in minority businesses that
produce goods and services likely to be of use to the
Ⅲ. A belief that the minority business sector is best
served by investing primarily in newly established
(B) Ⅲ only
(C)Ⅰand Ⅱ only
(D)Ⅱ and Ⅲ only
(E)Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅲ
6. The author refers to the “financial and operating
problems”(line 38 ) encountered by MESBIC’s
primarily in order to
(A) broaden the scope of the discussion to include the
legal considerations of funding MESBIC’S through
(B) call attention to the fact that MESBIC’s must
receive adequate funding in order to function
(C) show that sponsoring companies were willing to
invest only $500,000 of government-sponsored
venture capital in the original MESBIC’s
(D) compare SBA and MESBIC limits on minimum
(E) refute suggestions that MESBIC’s have been only
7. The author’s primary objective in the passage is to
(A) disprove the view that federal efforts to aid minority
businesses have been ineffective
(B) explain how federal efforts to aid minority
businesses have changed since the 1960’s
(C) establish a direct link between the federal efforts
to aid minority businesses made before the 1960’s
and those made in the 1980’s
(D) analyze the basis for the belief that job-specific
experience is more useful to minority businesses
than is general management experience
(E) argue that the “social responsibility approach” to
aiding minority businesses is superior to any
8. It can be inferred from the passage that the attitude of
some MESBIC staff members toward the investments
preferred by some MESBIC directors can best be
9. The passage provides information that would answer
which of the following questions?
(A) What was the average annual amount, in dollars, of
minority business receipts before the SBA strategy
(B) What locations are considered to be unfavorable for
(C) What is the current success rate for minority
businesses that are capitalized by MESBIC’s?
(D) How has the use of federal funding for minority
businesses changed since the 1960’s?
(E) How do minority businesses apply to participate in
a MESBIC program?
The majority of successful senior managers do not
closely follow the classical rational model of first clari-
fying goals, assessing the problem, formulating options,
estimating likelihoods of success, making a decision,
(5) and only then taking action to implement the decision.
Rather, in their day-by-day tactical maneuvers, these
senior executives rely on what is vaguely termed “intu-
ition” to mangage a network of interrelated problems
that require them to deal with ambiguity, inconsistency,
(10) novelty, and surprise; and to integrate action into the
process to thinking.
Generations of writers on management have recog-
nized that some practicing managers rely heavily on
intuition. In general, however, such writers display a
(15) poor grasp of what intuition is. Some see it as the oppo-
site of rationality: others view it as an excuse for ca-
Isenberg’s recent research on the cognitive processes
of senior managers reveals that managers’ intuition is
(20) neither of these. Rather, senior managers use intuition
in at least five distinct ways. First, they intuitively sense
when a problem exists. Second, managers rely on intu-
ition to perform well-learned behavior patterns rapidly.
This intuition is not arbitrary or irrational, but is based
(25) on years of painstaking practice and hands-on experi-
ence that build skills. A third function of intuition is to
synthesize isolated bits of data and practice into an inte-
grated picture, often in an “Aha!” experience. Fourth,
some managers use intuition as a check on the results
(30) of more rational analysis. Most senior executives are
familiar with the formal decision analysis models and
tools, and those who use such systematic methods for
reaching decisions are occasionally leery of solutions
suggested by these methods which run counter to their
(35) sense of the correct course of action. Finally, managers
can use intuition to bypass in-depth analysis and move
rapidly to engender a plausible solution. Used in this
way, intuition is an almost instantaneous cognitive
process in which a manager recognizes familiar patterns.
(40) One of the implications of the intuitive style of execu-
tive management is that “thinking” is inseparable from
acting. Since managers often “know” what is right
before they can analyze and explain it, they frequently
act first and explain later. Analysis is inextricably tied
(45) to action in thinking/acting cycles, in which managers
develop thoughts about their companies and organiza-
tions not by analyzing a problematic situation and then
acting, but by acting and analyzing in close concert.
Given the great uncertainty of many of the manage-
(50) ment issues that they face, senior managers often insti-
gate a course of action simply to learn more about an
issue. They then use the results of the action to develop
a more complete understanding of the issue. One impli-
cation of thinking/acting cycles is that action is often
(55) part of defining the problem, not just of implementing
1. According to the passage, senior managers use
intuition in all of the following ways EXCEPT to
(A) speed up of the creation of a solution to a problem
(B) identify a problem
(C) bring together disparate facts
(D) stipulate clear goals
(E) evaluate possible solutions to a problem
2. The passage suggests which of the following about the
“writers on management” mentioned in line 12?
(A) They have criticized managers for not following
the classical rational model of decision analysis.
(B) They have not based their analyses on a sufficiently
large sample of actual managers.
(C) They have relied in drawing their conclusions on
what managers say rather than on what managers do.
(D) They have misunderstood how managers use
intuition in making business decisions.
(E) They have not acknowledged the role of intuition in
3. Which of the following best exemplifies “an ‘Aha!’
experience” (line 28) as it is presented in the passage?
(A) A manager risks taking an action whose outcome is
unpredictable to discover whether the action changes
the problem at hand.
(B) A manager performs well-learned and familiar
behavior patterns in creative and uncharacteristic
ways to solve a problem.
(C) A manager suddenly connects seemingly unrelated
facts and experiences to create a pattern relevant to
the problem at hand.
(D) A manager rapidly identifies the methodology used
to compile data yielded by systematic analysis.
(E) A manager swiftly decides which of several sets of
tactics to implement in order to deal with the conti –
ngencies suggested by a problem.
4. According to the passage, the classical model of
decision analysis includes all of the following EXCEPT
(A) evaluation of a problem
(B) creation of possible solutions to a problem
(C) establishment of clear goals to be reached by the
(D) action undertaken in order to discover more
information about a problem
(E) comparison of the probable effects of different
solutions to a problem
5. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
following would most probably be one major difference
in behavior between Manager X, who uses intuition to
reach decisions, and Manager Y, who uses only formal
(A) Manager X analyzes first and then acts; Manager
Y does not.
(B) Manager X checks possible solutions to a problem
by systematic analysis; Manager Y does not
(C) Manager X takes action in order to arrive at the
solution to a problem; Manager Y does not.
(D) Manager Y draws on years of hands-on experience
in creating a solution to a problem; Manager X
(E) Manger Y depends on day-to-day tactical
maneuvering; manager X does not.
6. It can be inferred from the passage that “thinking/acting
cycles” (line 45 ) in managerial practice would be
likely to result in which of the following?
Ⅰ.A manager analyzes a network of problems and then
acts on the basis of that analysis.
Ⅱ. A manager gathers data by acting and observing the
effects of action.
Ⅲ. A manager takes action without being able to
articulate reasons for that particular action.
(A) Ⅰ only
(B) Ⅱ only
(C) Ⅰ and Ⅱ only
(D) Ⅱ and Ⅲ only
(E) Ⅰ,Ⅱ, and Ⅲ
7. The passage provides support for which of the
(A) Managers who rely on intuition are more
successful than those who rely on formal
(B) Managers cannot justify their intuitive decisions.
(C) Managers’ intuition works contrary to their
rational and analytical skills
(D) Logical analysis of a problem increases the
number of possible solutions.
(E) Intuition enables managers to employ their practical
experience more efficiently.
8. Which of the following best describes the organization
of the first paragraph of the passage?
(A) An assertion is made and a specific supporting
example is given.
(B) A conventional model is dismissed and an
(C) The results of recent research are introduced and
(D) Two opposing points of view are presented and
(E) A widely accepted definition is presented and
Nearly a century ago, biologists found that if they
separated an invertebrate animal embryo into two parts
at an early stage of its life, it would survive and develop
as two normal embryos. This led them to believe that the
(5) cells in the early embryo are undetermined in the sense
that each cell has the potential to develop in a variety of
different ways. Later biologists found that the situation
was not so simple. It matters in which plane the embryo
is cut. If it is cut in a plane different from the one used
(10) by the early investigators, it will not form two whole
A debate arose over what exactly was happening.
Which embryo cells are determined, just when do they-
become irreversibly committed to their fates, and what
(15) are the “morphogenetic determinants” that tell a cell
what to become? But the debate could not be resolved
because no one was able to ask the crucial questions
in a form in which they could be pursued productively.
Recent discoveries in molecular biology, however, have
(20) opened up prospects for a resolution of the debate.
Now investigators think they know at least some of the
molecules that act as morphogenetic determinants in
early development. They have been able o show that,
in a sense, cell determination begins even before an egg
(25) is fertilized.
Studying sea urchins, biologist Paul Gross found
that an unfertilized egg contains substances that func-
tion as morphogenetic determinants. They are located
in the cytoplasm of the egg cell; i.e., in that part of the
(30) cell’s protoplasm that lies outside of the nucleus. In the
unfertilized egg, the substances are inactive and are not
distributed homogeneously. When the egg is fertilized,
the substances become active and, presumably, govern
the behavior of the genes they interact with. Since the
(35) substances are unevenly distributed in the egg, when the
fertilized egg divides, the resulting cells are different
from the start and so can be qualitatively different in
their own gene activity.
The substances that Gross studied are maternal
(40) messenger RNA’s –products of certain of the maternal
genes. He and other biologists studying a wide variety
of organisms have found that these particular RNA’s
direct, in large part, the synthesis of histones, a class
of proteins that bind to DNA. Once synthesized, the
(45) histones move into the cell nucleus, where section of
DNA wrap around them to form a structure that resem-
bles beads, or knots, on a string. The beads are DNA
segments wrapped around the histones; the string is the
intervening DNA. And it is the structure of these beaded
(50) DNA strings that guides the fate of the cells in which
they are located.
1. The passage is most probably directed at which kind of
(A) State legislators deciding about funding levels for a
state-funded biological laboratory
(B) Scientists specializing in molecular genetics
(C) Readers of an alumni newsletter published by the
college that Paul Gross attended
(D) Marine biologists studying the processes that give
rise to new species
(E) Undergraduate biology majors in a molecular
2. It can be inferred from the passage that the
morphogenetic determinants present in the
early embryo are
(A) located in the nucleus of the embryo cells
(B) evenly distributed unless the embryo is not
(C) inactive until the embryo cells become irreversibly
committed to their final function
(D) identical to those that were already present in the
(E) present in larger quantities than is necessary for the
development of a single individual
3. The main topic of the passage is
(A) the early development of embryos of lower marine
(B) the main contribution of modern embryology to
(C) the role of molecular biology in disproving older
theories of embryonic development
(D) cell determination as an issue in the study of
(E) scientific dogma as a factor in the recent debate over
the value of molecular biology
4. According to the passage, when biologists believed that
the cells in the early embryo were undetermined, they
made which of the following mistakes?
(A) They did not attempt to replicate the original
experiment of separating an embryo into two parts.
(B) They did not realize that there was a connection
between the issue of cell determination and the
outcome of the separation experiment.
(C) They assumed that the results of experiments on
embryos did not depend on the particular animal
species used for such experiments.
(D) They assumed that it was crucial to perform the
separation experiment at an early stage in the
(E) They assumed that different ways of separating an
embryo into two parts would be equivalent as far
as the fate of the two parts was concerned.
5. It can be inferred from the passage that the initial
production of histones after an egg is fertilized takes
(A) in the cytoplasm
(B) in the maternal genes
(C) throughout the protoplasm
(D) in the beaded portions of the DNA strings
(E) in certain sections of the cell nucleus
6. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
following is dependent on the fertilization of an egg?
(A) Copying of maternal genes to produce maternal
(B) Sythesis of proteins called histones
(C) Division of a cell into its nucleus and the cytoplasm
(D) Determination of the egg cell’s potential for division
(E) Generation of all of a cell’s morphogenetic
7. According to the passage, the morphogenetic
determinants present in the unfertilized egg cell are
which of the following?
(A) Proteins bound to the nucleus
(C) Maternal messenger RNA’s
(E) Nonbeaded intervening DNA
8. The passage suggests that which of the following plays a
role in determining whether an embryo separated into
two parts will two parts will develop as two normal
Ⅰ.The stage in the embryo’s life at which the separation
Ⅱ. The instrument with which the separations is
Ⅲ. The plane in which the cut is made that separates
(B) Ⅱ only
(C) Ⅰ and Ⅱ.only
(D) Ⅰ and Ⅲ.only
(E) Ⅰ,Ⅱ, and Ⅲ
9. Which of the following circumstances is most
comparable to the impasse biologists encountered in
trying to resolve the debate about cell determination
(A) The problems faced by a literary scholar who wishes
to use original source materials that are written in
an unfamiliar foreign language
(B) The situation of a mathematician who in preparing a
proof of a theorem for publication detects a
reasoning error in the proof
(C) The difficulties of a space engineer who has to
design equipment to function in an environment in
which it cannot first be tested
(D) The predicament of a linguist trying to develop a
theory of language acquisition when knowledge of
the structure of language itself is rudimentary at best
(E) The dilemma confronting a foundation when the
funds available to it are sufficient to support one of
two equally deserving scientific projects but not both
In the two decades between 1910 and 1930, over
ten percent to the Black population of the United States
left the South, where the preponderance of the Black
population had been located, and migrated to northern
(5) states, with the largest number moving, it is claimed,
between 1916 and 1918. It has been frequently assumed,
but not proved, that the majority of the migrants in
what has come to be called the Great Migration came
from rural areas and were motivated by two concurrent
(10) factors: the collapse of the cotton industry following
the boll weevil infestation, which began in 1898, and
increased demand in the North for labor following
the cessation of European immigration caused by the
outbreak of the First World War in 1914. This assump-
(15) tion has led to the conclusion that the migrants’ subse-
quent lack of economic mobility in the North is tied to
rural background, a background that implies unfamil-
iarity with urban living and a lack of industrial skills.
But the question of who actually left the South has
(20) never been rigorously investigated. Although numerous
investigations document an exodus from rural southern
areas to southern cities prior to the Great Migration.
no one has considered whether the same migrants then
moved on to northern cities. In 1910 over 600,000
(25) Black workers, or ten percent of the Black work force,
reported themselves to be engaged in “manufacturing
and mechanical pursuits,” the federal census category
roughly encompassing the entire industrial sector. The
Great Migration could easily have been made up entirely
(30) of this group and their families. It is perhaps surprising
to argue that an employed population could be enticed
to move, but an explanation lies in the labor conditions
then prevalent in the South.
About thirty-five percent of the urban Black popu-
(35) lation in the South was engaged in skilled trades. Some
were from the old artisan class of slavery-blacksmiths.
masons, carpenters-which had had a monopoly of
certain trades, but they were gradually being pushed
out by competition, mechanization, and obsolescence,
(40) The remaining sixty-five percent, more recently urban-
ized, worked in newly developed industries—tobacco.
lumber, coal and iron manufacture, and railroads.
Wages in the South, however, were low, and Black
workers were aware, through labor recruiters and the
(45)Black press, that they could earn more even as unskilled
workers in the North than they could as artisans in the
South. After the boll weevil infestation, urban Black
workers faced competition from the continuing influx
of both Black and White rural workers, who were driven
(50) to undercut the wages formerly paid for industrial jobs.
Thus, a move north would be seen as advantageous
to a group that was already urbanized and steadily
employed, and the easy conclusion tying their subse-
quent economic problems in the North to their rural
background comes into question.
1. The author indicates explicitly that which of the
following records has been a source of information in
(A) United States Immigration Service reports from
1914 to 1930
(B) Payrolls of southern manufacturing firms between
1910 and 1930
(C) The volume of cotton exports between 1898 and
(D) The federal census of 1910
(E) Advertisements of labor recruiters appearing in
southern newspapers after 1910
2. In the passage, the author anticipates which of the
following as a possible objection to her argument?
(A) It is uncertain how many people actually migrated
during the Great Migration.
(B) The eventual economic status of the Great Migration
migrants has not been adequately traced.
(C) It is not likely that people with steady jobs would
have reason to move to another area of the country.
(D) It is not true that the term “manufacturing and
mechanical pursuits” actually encompasses the
entire industrial sector.
(E) Of the Black workers living in southern cities, only
those in a small number of trades were threatened by
3. According to the passage, which of the following is true
of wages in southern cities in 1910?
(A) They were being pushed lower as a result of
(B) They had begun t to rise so that southern industry
could attract rural workers.
(C) They had increased for skilled workers but
decreased for unskilled workers.
(D) They had increased in large southern cities but
decreased in small southern cities.
(E) They had increased in newly developed industries
but decreased in the older trades.
4. The author cites each of the following as possible
influences in a Black worker’s decision to migrate
north in the Great Migration EXCEPT
(A) wage levels in northern cities
(B) labor recruiters
(C) competition from rural workers
(D) voting rights in northern states
(E) the Black press
5. It can be inferred from the passage that the “easy
conclusion” mentioned in line 53 is based on which
of the following assumptions?
(A) People who migrate from rural areas to large
cities usually do so for economic reasons.
(B) Most people who leave rural areas to take jobs in
cities return to rural areas as soon as it is financially
possible for them to do so.
(C) People with rural backgrounds are less likely to
succeed economically in cities than are those with
(D) Most people who were once skilled workers are
not willing to work as unskilled workers.
(E) People who migrate from their birthplaces to other
regions of country seldom undertake a second
6. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) support an alternative to an accepted methodology
(B) present evidence that resolves a contradiction
(C) introduce a recently discovered source of
(D) challenge a widely accepted explanation
(E) argue that a discarded theory deserves new attention
7. According to information in the passage, which of the
following is a correct sequence of groups of workers,
from highest paid to lowest paid, in the period between
1910 and 1930?
(A) Artisans in the North; artisans in the South;
unskilled workers in the North; unskilled workers in
(B) Artisans in the North and South; unskilled workers
in the North; unskilled workers in the South
(C) Artisans in the North; unskilled workers in the
North; artisans in the South
(D) Artisans in the North and South; unskilled urban
workers in the North; unskilled rural workers in the
(E) Artisans in the North and South, unskilled rural
workers in the North and South; unskilled urban
workers in the North and South
8. The material in the passage would be most relevant to a
long discussion of which of the following topics?
(A) The reasons for the subsequent economic difficulties
of those who participated in the Great Migration
(B) The effect of migration on the regional economies of
the United States following the First World War
(C) The transition from a rural to an urban existence for
those who migrated in the Great Migration
(D) The transformation of the agricultural South
following the boll weevil infestation
(E) The disappearance of the artisan class in the United
States as a consequence of mechanization in the
early twentieth century
In 1896 a Georgia couple suing for damages in the
accidental death of their two year old was told that since
the child had made no real economic contribution to the
family, there was no liability for damages. In contrast,
(5) less than a century later, in 1979, the parents of a three
year old sued in New York for accidental-death damages
and won an award of $750,000.
The transformation in social values implicit in juxta-
posing these two incidents is the subject of Viviana
(10) Zelizer’s excellent book, Pricing the Priceless Child.
During the nineteenth century, she argues, the concept
of the “useful” child who contributed to the family
economy gave way gradually to the present-day notion
of the “useless” child who, though producing no income
(15) for, and indeed extremely costly to, its parents, is yet
considered emotionally “priceless.” Well established
among segments of the middle and upper classes by the
mid-1800’s, this new view of childhood spread through-
out society in the iate-nineteenth and early-twentieth
(20) centuries as reformers introduced child-labor regulations
and compulsory education laws predicated in part on the
assumption that a child’s emotional value made child
For Zelizer the origins of this transformation were
(25) many and complex. The gradual erosion of children’s
productive value in a maturing industrial economy,
the decline in birth and death rates, especially in child
mortality, and the development of the companionate
family (a family in which members were united by
(30) explicit bonds of love rather than duty) were all factors
critical in changing the assessment of children’s worth.
Yet “expulsion of children from the ‘cash nexus,’…
although clearly shaped by profound changes in the
economic, occupational, and family structures,” Zelizer
(35) maintains. “was also part of a cultural process ‘of sacral-
ization’ of children’s lives. ” Protecting children from the
crass business world became enormously important for
late-nineteenth-century middle-class Americans, she
suggests; this sacralization was a way of resisting what
(40) they perceived as the relentless corruption of human
values by the marketplace.
In stressing the cultural determinants of a child’s
worth. Zelizer takes issue with practitioners of the new
“sociological economics,” who have analyzed such tradi-
(45) tionally sociological topics as crime, marriage, educa-
tion, and health solely in terms of their economic deter-
minants. Allowing only a small role for cultural forces
in the form of individual “preferences,” these sociologists
tend to view all human behavior as directed primarily by
(50) the principle of maximizing economic gain. Zelizer is
highly critical of this approach, and emphasizes instead
the opposite phenomenon: the power of social values to
transform price. As children became more valuable in
emotional terms, she argues, their “exchange” or “ sur-
(55) render” value on the market, that is, the conversion of
their intangible worth into cash terms, became much
1. It can be inferred from the passage that accidental-death
damage awards in America during the nineteenth
century tended to be based principally on the
(A) earnings of the person at time of death
(B) wealth of the party causing the death
(C) degree of culpability of the party causing the death
(D) amount of money that had been spent on the person
(E) amount of suffering endured by the family of the
2. It can be inferred from the passage that in the early
1800’s children were generally regarded by their
families as individuals who
(A) needed enormous amounts of security and affection
(B) required constant supervision while working
(C) were important to the economic well-being of a
(D) were unsuited to spending long hours in school
(E) were financial burdens assumed for the good of
3. which of the following alternative explanations of the
change in the cash value of children would be most
likely to be put forward by sociological economists as
they are described in the passage?
(A) The cash value of children rose during the
nineteenth century because parents began to increase
their emotional investment in the upbringing of
(B) The cash value of children rose during the
nineteenth century because their expected earnings
over the course of a lifetime increased greatly.
(C) The cash value of children rose during the
nineteenth century because the spread of
humanitarian ideals resulted in a wholesale
reappraisal of the worth of an individual
(D) The cash value of children rose during the
nineteenth century because compulsory education
laws reduced the supply, and thus raised the costs,
of available child labor.
(E) The cash value of children rose during the
nineteenth century because of changes in the way
negligence law assessed damages in accidental-
4. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) review the literature in a new academic subfield
(B) present the central thesis of a recent book
(C) contrast two approaches to analyzing historical
(D) refute a traditional explanation of a social
(E) encourage further work on a neglected historical
5. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
following statements was true of American families over
the course of the nineteenth century?
(A) The average size of families grew considerably
(B) The percentage of families involved in industrial
work declined dramatically.
(C) Family members became more emotionally bonded
to one another.
(D) Family members spent an increasing amount of time
working with each other.
(E) Family members became more economically
dependent on each other.
6. Zelizer refers to all of the following as important
influences in changing the assessment of children’s
worth EXCEPT changes in
(A) the mortality rate
(B) the nature of industry
(C) the nature of the family
(D) attitudes toward reform movements
(E) attitudes toward the marketplace
7.Which of the following would be most consistent with
the practices of sociological economics as these
practices are described in the passage?
(A) Arguing that most health-care professionals enter
the field because they believe it to be the most
socially useful of any occupation
(B) Arguing that most college students choose majors
that they believe will lead to the most highly paid
jobs available to them
(C) Arguing that most decisions about marriage and
divorce are based on rational assessments of the
likelihood that each partner will remain committed
to the relationship
(D) Analyzing changes in the number of people enrolled
in colleges and universities as a function of changes
in the economic health of these institutions
(E) Analyzing changes in the ages at which people get
married as a function of a change in the average
number of years that young people have lived away
from their parents
Prior to 1975, union efforts to organize public-sector
clerical workers, most of whom are women, were some-
what limited. The factors favoring unionization drives
seem to have been either the presence of large numbers
(5) of workers, as in New York City, to make it worth the
effort, or the concentration of small numbers in one or
two locations, such as a hospital, to make it relatively
easy, Receptivity to unionization on the workers, part
was also a consideration, but when there were large
(10) numbers involved or the clerical workers were the only
unorganized group in a jurisdiction, the multioccupa-
tional unions would often try to organize them regard-
less of the workers’ initial receptivity. The strategic
reasoning was based, first, on the concern that politi-
(15) cians and administrators might play off unionized
against nonunionized workers, and, second, on the
conviction that a fully unionized public work force
meant power, both at the bargaining table and in the
legislature. In localities where clerical workers were few
(20) in number, were scattered in several workplaces, and
expressed no interest in being organized, unions more
often than not ignored them in the pre-1975 period.
But since the mid-1970’s, a different strategy has
emerged. In 1977, 34 percent of government clerical
(25) workers were represented by a labor organization,
compared with 46 percent of government professionals,
44 percent of government blue-collar workers, and
41 percent of government service workers, Since then,
however, the biggest increases in public-sector unioniza-
(30) tion have been among clerical workers. Between 1977
and 1980, the number of unionized government workers
in blue-collar and service occupations increased only
about 1.5 percent, while in the white-collar occupations
the increase was 20 percent and among clerical workers
(35) in particular, the increase was 22 percent.
What accounts for this upsurge in unionization
among clerical workers? First, more women have entered
the work force in the past few years, and more of them
plan to remain working until retirement age. Conse-
(40) quently, they are probably more concerned than their
predecessors were about job security and economic bene-
fits. Also, the women’s movement has succeeded in legit-
imizing the economic and political activism of women on
their own behalf, thereby producing a more positive atti-
(45) tude toward unions. The absence of any comparable
increase in unionization among private-sector clerical
workers, however, identifies the primary catalyst-the
structural change in the multioccupational public-sector
unions themselves. Over the past twenty years, the occu-
(50) pational distribution in these unions has been steadily
shifting from predominantly blue-collar to predomi-
nantly white-collar. Because there are far more women
in white-collar jobs, an increase in the proportion of
female members has accompanied the occupational shift
(55) and has altered union policy-making in favor of orga-
nizing women and addressing women’s issues.
1. According to the passage, the public-sector workers who
were most likely to belong to unions in 1977 were
(C) clerical workers
(D) service workers
(E) blue-collar workers
2. The author cites union efforts to achieve a fully
unionized work force (line 13-19) in order to account
(A) politicians might try to oppose public-sector union
(B) public-sector unions have recently focused on
(C) early organizing efforts often focused on areas
where there were large numbers of workers
(D) union efforts with regard to public-sector clerical
workers increased dramatically after 1975
(E) unions sometimes tried to organize workers
regardless of the workers’ initial interest in
3. The author’s claim that, since the mid-1970’s, a new
strategy has emerged in the unionization of public-
sector clerical workers (line 23 ) would be
strengthened if the author
(A) described more fully the attitudes of clerical workers
toward labor unions
(B) compared the organizing strategies employed by
private-sector unions with those of public-sector
(C) explained why politicians and administrators
sometimes oppose unionization of clerical workers
(D) indicated that the number of unionized public-sector
clerical workers was increasing even before the mid-
(E) showed that the factors that favored unionization
drives among these workers prior to 1975 have
decreased in importance
4. According to the passage, in the period prior to 1975,
each of the following considerations helped determine
whether a union would attempt to organize a certain
group of clerical workers EXCEPT
(A) the number of clerical workers in that group
(B) the number of women among the clerical workers
in that group
(C) whether the clerical workers in that area were
concentrated in one workplace or scattered over
(D) the degree to which the clerical workers in that
group were interested in unionization
(E) whether all the other workers in the same juris-
diction as that group of clerical workers were
5. The author states that which of the following is a
consequence of the women’s movement of recent
(A) An increase in the number of women entering the
(B) A structural change in multioccupational public-
(C) A more positive attitude on the part of women
(D) An increase in the proportion of clerical workers
that are women
(E) An increase in the number of women in
6. The main concern of the passage is to
(A) advocate particular strategies for future efforts to
organize certain workers into labor unions
(B) explain differences in the unionized proportions of
various groups of public-sector workers
(C) evaluate the effectiveness of certain kinds of labor
unions that represent public-sector workers
(D) analyzed and explain an increase in unionization
among a certain category of workers
(E) describe and distinguish strategies appropriate to
organizing different categories of workers
7. The author implies that if the increase in the number of
women in the work force and the impact of the women’s
movement were the main causes of the rise in
unionization of public-sector clerical workers, then
(A) more women would hold administrative positions in
(B) more women who hold political offices would have
positive attitudes toward labor unions
(C) there would be an equivalent rise in unionization of
private-sector clerical workers
(D) unions would have shown more interest than they
have in organizing women
(E) the increase in the number of unionized public-
sector clerical workers would have been greater than
it has been
8. The author suggests that it would be disadvantageous to
a union if
(A) many workers in the locality were not unionized
(B) the union contributed to political campaigns
(C) the union included only public-sector workers
(D) the union included workers from several
(E) the union included members from only a few
9. The author implies that, in comparison with working
women today, women working in the years prior to the
mid-1970’s showed a greater tendency to
(A) prefer smaller workplaces
(B) express a positive attitude toward labor unions
(C) maximize job security and economic benefits
(D) side with administrators in labor disputes
(E) quit working prior of retirement age
Milankovitch proposed in the early twentieth century
that the ice ages were caused by variations in the Earth’s
orbit around the Sun. For sometime this theory was
considered untestable, largely because there was no suffi-
(5) ciently precise chronology of the ice ages with which
the orbital variations could be matched.
To establish such a chronology it is necessary to
determine the relative amounts of land ice that existed
at various times in the Earth’s past. A recent discovery
(10) makes such a determination possible: relative land-ice
volume for a given period can be deduced from the ratio
of two oxygen isotopes, 16 and 18, found in ocean sedi-
ments. Almost all the oxygen in water is oxygen 16, but
a few molecules out of every thousand incorporate the
(15) heavier isotope 18. When an ice age begins, the conti-
nental ice sheets grow, steadily reducing the amount of
water evaporated from the ocean that will eventually
return to it. Because heavier isotopes tend to be left
behid when water evaporates from the ocean surfaces,
(20) the remaining ocean water becomes progressively
enriched in oxygen 18. The degree of enrichment can
be determined by analyzing ocean sediments of the
period, because these sediments are composed of calcium
carbonate shells of marine organisms, shells that were
(25) constructed with oxygen atoms drawn from the sur-
rounding ocean. The higher the ratio of oxygen 18 to oxygen 16 in a sedimentary specimen, the more land ice
there was when the sediment was laid down.
As an indicator of shifts in the Earth’s climate, the
(30) isotope record has two advantages. First, it is a global
record: there is remarkably little variation in isotope
ratios in sedimentary specimens taken from different
continental locations. Second, it is a more continuous
record than that taken from rocks on land. Because of
(35) these advantages, sedimentary evidence can be dated
with sufficient accuracy by radiometric methods to
establish a precise chronology of the ice ages. The dated
isotope record shows that the fluctuations in global ice volume over the past several hundred thousand years
(40) have a pattern: an ice age occurs roughly once every
100,000 years. These data have established a strong
connection between variations in the Earth’s orbit and
the periodicity of the ice ages.
However, it is important to note that other factors,
(45) such as volcanic particulates or variations in the amount
of sunlight received by the Earth, could potentially have
affected the climate. The advantage of the Milankovitch
theory is that it is testable: changes in the Earth’s orbit
can be calculated and dated by applying Newton’s laws
(50) of gravity to progressively earlier configurations of the
bodies in the solar system. Yet the lack of information
about other possible factors affecting global climate does
not make them unimportant.
1. In the passage, the author is primarily interested in
(A) suggesting an alternative to an outdated research
(B) introducing a new research method that calls an
accepted theory into question
(C) emphasizing the instability of data gathered from
the application of a new scientific method
(D) presenting a theory and describing a new method
to test that theory
(E) initiating a debate about a widely accepted theory
2. The author of the passage would be most likely to
agree with which of the following statements about
the Milankovitch theory?
(A) It is the only possible explanation for the ice ages.
(B) It is too limited to provide a plausible explanation
for the ice ages, despite recent research findings.
(C) It cannot be tested and confirmed until further
research on volcanic activity is done.
(D) It is one plausible explanation, though not the
only one, for the ice ages.
(E) It is not a plausible explanation for the ice ages,
although it has opened up promising possibilities
for future research.
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the isotope
record taken from ocean sediments would be less useful
to researchers if which of the following were true?
(A) It indicated that lighter isotopes of oxygen
predominated at certain times.
(B) It had far more gaps in its sequence than the record
taken from rocks on land.
(C) It indicated that climate shifts did not occur every
(D) It indicated that the ratios of oxygen 16 and oxygen
18 in ocean water were not consistent with those
found in fresh water.
(E) It stretched back for only a million years.
4. According to the passage, which of the following is true
of the ratios of oxygen isotopes in ocean sediments?
(A) They indicate that sediments found during an ice
age contain more calcium carbonate than sediments
formed at other times.
(B) They are less reliable than the evidence from rocks
on land in determining the volume of land ice.
(C) They can be used to deduce the relative volume of
land ice that was present when the sediment was
(D) They are more unpredictable during an ice age
than in other climatic conditions.
(E) They can be used to determine atmospheric
conditions at various times in the past.
5. It can be inferred from the passage that precipitation
formed from evaporated ocean water has
(A) the same isotopic ratio as ocean water
(B) less oxygen 18 than does ocean water
(C) less oxygen 18 than has the ice contained in
continental ice sheets
(D) a different isotopic composition than has
precipitation formed from water on land
(E) more oxygen 16 than has precipitation formed from
6. According to the passage, which of the following is (are)
true of the ice ages?
Ⅰ. The last ice age occurred about 25,000 years ago.
Ⅱ. Ice ages have lasted about 10,000 years for at least
the last several hundred thousand years.
Ⅲ. Ice ages have occurred about every 100,000 years
for at least the last several hundred thousand years.
(A) Ⅰ only
(B) Ⅱ only
(C) Ⅲ only
(D) Ⅰand only
(E) Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅲ
7. It can be inferred from the passage that calcium
(A) are not as susceptible to deterioration as rocks
(B) are less common in sediments formed during an ice
(C) are found only in areas that were once covered by
(D) contain radioactive material that can be used to
determine a sediment’s isotopic composition
(E) reflect the isotopic composition of the water at the
time the shells were formed
8. The purpose of the last paragraph of the passage is to
(A) offer a note of caution
(B) introduce new evidence
(C) present two recent discoveries
(D) summarize material in the preceding paragraphs
(E) offer two explanations for a phenomenon
9. According to the passage, one advantage of studying the
isotope record of ocean sediments is that it
(A) corresponds with the record of ice volume taken
from rocks on land
(B) shows little variation in isotope ratios when samples
are taken from different continental locations
(C) corresponds with predictions already made by
climatologists and experts in other fields
(D) confirms the record of ice volume initially
established by analyzing variations in volcanic
(E) provides data that can be used to substantiate
records concerning variations in the amount
of sunlight received by the Earth
In contrast to traditional analyses of minority busi-
ness, the sociological analysis contends that minority
business ownership is a group-level phenomenon, in that
it is largely dependent upon social-group resources for
(5) its development. Specifically, this analysis indicates that
support networks play a critical role in starting and
maintaining minority business enterprises by providing
owners with a range of assistance, from the informal
encouragement of family members and friends to
(10) dependable sources of labor and clientele from the
owner’s ethnic group. Such self-help networks, which
encourage and support ethnic minority entrepreneurs,
consist of “primary” institutions, those closest to the
individual in shaping his or her behavior and beliefs.
(15) They are characterized by the face-to-face association
and cooperation of persons united by ties of mutual
concern. They form an intermediate social level between
the individual and larger “secondary ” institutions based
on impersonal relationships. Primary institutions
(20) comprising the support network include kinship, peer,
and neighborhood or community subgroups.
A major function of self-help networks is financial
support. Most scholars agree that minority business
owners have depended primarily on family funds and
(25) ethnic community resources for investment capital .
Personal savings have been accumulated, often through
frugal living habits that require sacrifices by the entire
family and are thus a product of long-term family finan-
cial behavior. Additional loans and gifts from relatives.
(30) forthcoming because of group obligation rather than
narrow investment calculation, have supplemented
personal savings. Individual entrepreneurs do not neces-
sarily rely on their kin because they cannot obtain finan-
cial backing from commercial resources. They may actu-
(35) ally avoid banks because they assume that commercial
institutions either cannot comprehend the special needs
of minority enterprise or charge unreasonably high
Within the larger ethnic community, rotating credit
(40) associations have been used to raise capital. These asso-
ciations are informal clubs of friends and other trusted
members of the ethnic group who make regular contri-
butions to a fund that is given to each contributor in
rotation. One author estimates that 40 percent of New
(45)York Chinatown firms established during 1900-1950
utilized such associations as their initial source of
capital. However, recent immigrants and third or fourth
generations of older groups now employ rotating credit
associations only occasionally to raise investment funds.
(50) Some groups, like Black Americans, found other means
of financial support for their entrepreneurial efforts.The
first Black-operated banks were created in the late nine-
teenth century as depositories for dues collected from
fraternal or lodge groups, which themselves had sprung
(55) from Black churches. Black banks made limited invest-
ments in other Black enterprises. Irish immigrants in
American cities organized many building and loan asso-
ciations to provide capital for home construction and
purchase. They. in turn, provided work for many Irish
(60) home-building contractor firms. Other ethnic and
minority groups followed similar practices in founding
ethnic-directed financial institutions.
1. Based on the information in the passage. it would be
LEAST likely for which of the following persons to be
part of a self-help network?
(A) The entrepreneur’s childhood friend
(B) The entrepreneur’s aunt
(C) The entrepreneur’s religious leader
(D) The entrepreneur’s neighbor
(E) The entrepreneur’s banker
2. Which of the following illustrates the working of a self-
help support network, as such networks are described
in the passage?
(A) A public high school offers courses in book-keeping
and accounting as part of its open-enrollment adult
(B) The local government in a small city sets up a
program that helps teen-agers find summer jobs.
(C) A major commercial bank offers low-interest loans
to experienced individuals who hope to establish
their own businesses.
(D) A neighborhood-based fraternal organization
develops a program of on-the-job training for its
members and their friends.
(E) A community college offers country residents
training programs that can lead to certification in a
variety of technical trades.
3. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage
about rotating credit associations?
(A) They were developed exclusively by Chinese
(B) They accounted for a significant portion of the
investment capital used by Chinese immigrants in
New York in the early twentieth century.
(C) Third-generation members of an immigrant group
who started businesses in the 1920’s would have
been unlikely to rely on them.
(D) They were frequently joint endeavors by members
of two or three different ethnic groups.
(E) Recent immigrants still frequently turn to rotating
credit associations instead of banks for investment
4. The passage best supports which of the following
(A) A minority entrepreneur who had no assistance from
family members would not be able to start a
(B) Self-help networks have been effective in helping
entrepreneurs primarily in the last 50 years.
(C) Minority groups have developed a range of
alternatives to standard financing of business
(D) The financial institutions founded by various ethnic
groups owe their success to their unique formal
(E) Successful minority-owned businesses succeed
primarily because of the personal strengths of their
5. Which of the following best describes the organization
of the second paragraph?
(A) An argument is delineated, followed by a
(B) An assertion is made and several examples are
provided to illustrate it.
(C) A situation is described and its historical
background is then outlined.
(D) An example of a phenomenon is given and is then
used as a basis for general conclusions.
(E) A group of parallel incidents is described and the
distinctions among the incidents are then clarified.
6. According to the passage, once a minority-owned
business is established, self-help networks contribute
which of the following to that business?
(A) Information regarding possible expansion of the
business into nearby communities
(B) Encouragement of a business climate that is nearly
free of direct competition
(C) Opportunities for the business owner to reinvest
profits in other minority-owned businesses
(D) Contact with people who are likely to be customers
of the new business
(E) Contact with minority entrepreneurs who are
members of other ethnic groups
7. It can be inferred from the passage that traditional
analyses of minority business would be LEAST likely
to do which of the following?
(A) Examine businesses primarily in their social
(B) Focus on current, rather than historical, examples
of business enterprises
(C) Stress common experiences of individual
entrepreneurs in starting businesses
(D) Focus on the maintenance of businesses, rather
than means of starting them
(E) Focus on the role of individual entrepreneurs in
starting a business
8. Which of the following can be inferred from the
passage about the Irish building and loan
associations mentioned in the last paragraph?
(A) They were started by third-or fourth-generation
(B) They originated as offshoots of church-related
(C) They frequently helped Irish entrepreneurs to
finance business not connected with construction.
(D) They contributed to the employment of many Irish
(E) They provided assistance for construction businesses
owned by members of other ethnic groups.
Species interdependence in nature confers many
benefits on the species involved, but it can also become a
point of weakness when one species involved in the rela-
tionship is affected by a catastrophe. Thus, flowering
(5) plant species dependent on insect pollination, as opposed
to self-pollination or wind pollination, could be endan-
gered when the population of insect-pollinators is depleted
by the use of pesticides.
In the forests of New Brunswick, for example,
(10) various pesticides have been sprayed in the past 25 years
in efforts to control the spruce budworm, an economi-
cally significant pest. Scientists have now investigated
the effects of the spraying of Matacil, one of the anti-
budworm agents that is least toxic to insect-pollinators.
(15) They studied Matacil’s effects on insect mortality in a
wide variety of wild insect species and on plant fecun-
dity, expressed as the percentage of the total flowers on
an individual plant that actually developed fruit and
bore seeds. They found that the most pronounced
(20) mortality after the spraying of Matacil occurred among
the smaller bees and one family of flies, insects that were
all important pollinators of numerous species of plants
growing beneath the tree canopy of forests. The fecun-
dity of plants in one common indigenous species, the
(25) red-osier dogwood, was significantly reduced in the
sprayed areas as compared to that of plants in control
plots where Matacil was not sprayed. This species is
highly dependent on the insect-pollinators most vulner-
able to Matacil. The creeping dogwood, a species similar
(30) to the red-osier dogwood, but which is pollinated by
large bees, such as bumblebees, showed no significant
decline in fecundity. Since large bees are not affected by
the spraying of Matacil. these results and weight to the
argument that spraying where the pollinators are sensi-
(35) tive to the pesticide used decreases plant fecundity.
The question of whether the decrease in plant fecun-
dity caused by the spraying of pesticides actually causes
a decline in the overall population of flowering plant
species still remains unanswered. Plant species dependent
(40) solely on seeds for survival or dispersal are obviously
more vulnerable to any decrease in plant fecundity that
occurs, whatever its cause. If, on the other hand, vegeta-
tive growth and dispersal (by means of shoots or runners)
are available as alternative reproductive strategies for a
(45) species, then decreases in plant fecundity may be of little
consequence. The fecundity effects described here are
likely to have the most profound impact on plant species
with all four of the following characteristics: a short life
span, a narrow geographic range, an incapacity for vege-
(50) tative propagation, and a dependence on a small number
of insect-pollinator species. Perhaps we should give special
attention to the conservation of such plant species since
they lack key factors in their defenses against the envi-
ronmental disruption caused by pesticide use.
1. Which of the following best summarizes the main point
of the passage?
(A) Species interdependence is a point of weakness for
some plants, but is generally beneficial to insects
involved in pollination.
(B) Efforts to control the spruce budworm have had
deleterious effects on the red-osier dogwood.
(C) The used of pesticides may be endangering certain
plant species dependent on insects for pollination.
(D) The spraying of pesticides can reduce the fecundity
of a plant species, but probably does not affect its
overall population stability.
(E) Plant species lacking key factors in their defenses
against human environmental disruption will
probably become extinct.
2. According to the author, a flowering plant species whose
fecundity has declined due to pesticide spraying may
not experience an overall population decline if the plant
species can do which of the following?
(A) Reproduce itself by means of shoots and runners.
(B) Survive to the end of the growing season.
(C) Survive in harsh climates.
(D) Respond to the fecundity decline by producing more
(E) Attract large insects as pollinators
3. The passage suggests that the lack of an observed
decline in the fecundity of the creeping dogwood
strengthens the researchers conclusions regarding
pesticide use because the
(A) creeping dogwood its a species that does not
resemble other forest plants
(B) creeping dogwood is a species pollinated by a
broader range of insect species than are most
(C) creeping dogwood grows primarily in regions that
were not sprayed with pesticide, and so served as a
control for the experiment
(D) creeping dogwood is similar to the red-osier
dogwood, but its insect pollinators are known to be
insensitive to the pesticide used in the study
(E) geographical range of the creeping dogwood is
similar to that of the red-osier dogwood, but the
latter species relies less on seeds for reproduction
4. The passage suggests that which of the following is true
of the forest regions in New Brunswick sprayed with
most anti-budworm pesticides other than Matacil?
(A) The fecundity of some flowering plants in those
regions may have decreased to an even greater
degree than in the regions where Matacil is used.
(B) Insect mortality in those regions occurs mostly
among the larger species of insects, such as
(C) The number of seeds produced by common plant
species in those regions is probably comparable to
the number produced where Matacil is sprayed.
(D) Many more plant species have become extinct in
those regions than in the regions where Matacil is
(E) The spruce budworm is under better control in those
regions than in the regions where Matacil is sprayed.
5. It can be inferred that which of the following is true of
plant fecundity as it is defined in the passage?
(A) A plant’s fecundity decreases as the percentage of
unpollinated flowers on the plant increases
(B) A plant’s fecundity decreases as the number of
flowers produced by the plant decreases.
(C) A plant’s fecundity increases as the number of
flowers produced by the plant increases.
(D) A plant’s fecundity is usually low if the plant relies
on a small number of insect species for pollination.
(E) A plant’s fecundity is high if the plant can reproduce
quickly by means of vegetative growth as well as by
the production of seeds.
6. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
following plant species would be LEAST likely to
experience a decrease in fecundity as a result of the
spraying of a pesticide not directly toxic to plants?
(A) A flowering tree pollinated by only a few insect
(B) A kind of insect-pollinated vine producing few
(C) A wind-pollinated flowering tree that is short-lived
(D) A flowering shrub pollinated by a large number of
(E) A type of wildflower typically pollinated by larger
7. Which of the following assumptions most probably
underlies the author’s tentative recommendation in
(A) Human activities that result in environmental
disruption should be abandoned.
(B) The use of pesticides is likely to continue into the
(C) It is economically beneficial to preserve endan-
gered plant species.
(D) Preventing the endangerment of a species is less
costly than trying to save an already endangered
(E) Conservation efforts aimed at preserving a few well-
chosen species are more cost-effective than are
broader-based efforts to improve the environment.
Bernard Bailyn has recently reinterpreted the early
history of the United States by applying new social
research findings on the experiences of European
migrants. In his reinterpretation, migration becomes the
(5) organizing principle for rewriting the history of prein-
dustrial North America. His approach rests on four
The first of these asserts that residents of early
modern England moved regularly about their coun-
(10) tryside; migrating to the New World was simply a
“natural spillover.” Although at first the colonies held
little positive attraction for the English—they would
rather have stayed home—by the eighteenth century
people increasingly migrated to America because they
(15) regarded it as the land of opportunity. Secondly, Bailyn
holds that, contrary to the notion that used to flourish in
America history textbooks, there was never a typical
New World community. For example, the economic and demographic character of early New England towns
(20) varied considerably.
Bailyn’s third proposition suggests two general
patterns prevailing among the many thousands of
migrants: one group came as indentured servants,
another came to acquire land. Surprisingly, Bailyn
(25) suggests that those who recruited indentured servants
were the driving forces of transatlantic migration. These
colonial entrepreneurs helped determine the social char-
acter of people who came to preindustrial North America.
At first, thousands of unskilled laborers were recruited;
(30) by the 1730’s, however, American employers demanded
Finally, Bailyn argues that the colonies were a half-
civilized hinterland of the European culture system. He
is undoubtedly correct to insist that the colonies were
(35) part of an Anglo-American empire. But to divide the
empire into English core and colonial periphery, as
Bailyn does, devalues the achievements of colonial
culture. It is true, as Bailyn claims, that high culture in
the colonies never matched that in England. But what
(40) of seventeenth-century New England, where the settlers
created effective laws, built a distinguished university,
and published books? Bailyn might respond that New
England was exceptional. However, the ideas and insti-
tutions developed by New England Puritans had power-
(45) ful effects on North American culture.
Although Bailyn goes on to apply his approach to
some thousands of indentured servants who migrated
just prior to the revolution, he fails to link their experi-
ence with the political development of the United States.
(50) Evidence presented in his work suggests how we might
make such a connection. These indentured servants were
treated as slaves for the period during which they had
sold their time to American employers. It is not surprising
that as soon as they served their time they passed up
(55) good wages in the cities and headed west to ensure their
personal independence by acquiring land. Thus, it is in
the west that a peculiarly American political culture
began, among colonists who were suspicious of
authority and intensely antiaristocratic.
1. Which of the following statements about migrants to
colonial North America is supported by information in
(A) A larger percentage of migrants to colonial North
America came as indentured servants than as free
agents interested in acquiring land.
(B) Migrants who came to the colonies as indentured
servants were more successful at making a
livelihood than were farmers and artisans.
(C) Migrants to colonial North America were more
successful at acquiring their own land during the
eighteenth century than during the seven-tenth
(D) By the 1730’s, migrants already skilled in a
trade were in more demand by American
employers than were unskilled laborers.
(E) A significant percentage of migrants who came to
the colonies to acquire land were forced to work as
field hands for prosperous American farmers.
2. The author of the passage states that Bailyn failed to
(A) give sufficient emphasis to the cultural and political
interdependence of the colonies and England
(B) describe carefully how migrants of different ethnic
backgrounds preserved their culture in the united
(C) take advantage of social research on the experi-
ences of colonists who migrated to colonial North
America specifically to acquire land
(D) relate the experience of the migrants to the political
values that eventually shaped the character of the
(E) investigate the lives of Europeans before they came
to colonial North America to determine more
adequately their motivations for migrating
3. Which of the following best summarizes the author’s
evaluation of Bailyn’s fourth proposition?
(A) It is totally implausible.
(B) It is partially correct.
(C) It is highly admirable.
(D) It is controversial though persuasive.
(E) It is intriguing though unsubstantiated.
4. According to the passage, Bailyn and the author agree
on which of the following statements about the culture
of colonial New England?
(A) High culture in New England never equaled the high
culture of England.
(B) The cultural achievements of colonial New
England have generally been unrecognized by
(C) The colonists imitated the high culture of England,
and did not develop a culture that was uniquely their
(D) The southern colonies were greatly influenced by
the high culture of New England.
(E) New England communities were able to create laws
and build a university, but unable to create anything
innovative in the arts.
5. According to the passage, which of the following is true
of English migrants to the colonies during the
(A) Most of them were farmers rather than trades
people or artisans.
(B) Most of them came because they were unable
to find work in England.
(C) They differed from other English people in that
they were willing to travel.
(D) They expected that the colonies would offer
them increased opportunity.
(E) They were generally not as educated as the
people who remained in England.
6. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
(A) comparing several current interpretations of early
(B) suggesting that new social research on migration
should lead to revisions in current interpretations of
early American history
(C) providing the theoretical framework that is used by
most historians in understanding early American
(D) refuting an argument about early American history
that has been proposed by social historians
(E) discussing a reinterpretation of early American
history that is based on new social research on
7. It can be inferred from the passage that American
history textbooks used to assert that
(A) many migrants to colonial North America were not
(B) more migrants came to America out of religious or
political conviction that came in the hope of
(C) New England communities were much alike in
terms of their economics and demographics
(D) many migrants to colonial North America failed to
maintain ties with their European relations
(E) the level of literacy in New England communities
was very high
8. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree
with which of the following statements about Bailyn’s
(A) Bailyn underestimates the effects of Puritan thought
on North American culture
(B) Bailyn overemphasizes the economic dependence of
the colonies on Great Britain.
(C) Bailyn’s description of the colonies as part of an
Anglo-American empire is misleading and incorrect.
(D) Bailyn failed to test his propositions on a specific
group of migrants to colonial North America.
(E) Bailyn overemphasizes the experiences of migrants
to the New England colonies, and neglects the
southern and the western parts of the New World.
Many United States companies have, unfortunately,
made the search for legal protection from import
competition into a major line of work. Since 1980 the
United States International Trade Commission (ITC)
(5) has received about 280 complaints alleging damage
from imports that benefit from subsidies by foreign
governments. Another 340 charge that foreign compa-
nies “dumped” their products in the United States at
“less than fair value.” Even when no unfair practices
(10) are alleged, the simple claim that an industry has been
injured by imports is sufficient grounds to seek relief.
Contrary to the general impression, this quest for
import relief has hurt more companies than it has
helped. As corporations begin to function globally, they
(15) develop an intricate web of marketing, production, and
research relationships, The complexity of these relation-
ships makes it unlikely that a system of import relief
laws will meet the strategic needs of all the units under
the same parent company.
(20) Internationalization increases the danger that foreign
companies will use import relief laws against the very
companies the laws were designed to protect. Suppose a
United States-owned company establishes an overseas
plant to manufacture a product while its competitor
(25) makes the same product in the United States. If the
competitor can prove injury from the imports—and
that the United States company received a subsidy from
a foreign government to build its plant abroad—the
United States company’s products will be uncompeti-
(30) tive in the United States, since they would be subject to
Perhaps the most brazen case occurred when the ITC
investigated allegations that Canadian companies were
injuring the United States salt industry by dumping
(35) rock salt, used to de-ice roads. The bizarre aspect of the
complaint was that a foreign conglomerate with United
States operations was crying for help against a United
States company with foreign operations. The “United
States” company claiming injury was a subsidiary of a
(40) Dutch conglomerate, while the “Canadian” companies
included a subsidiary of a Chicago firm that was the
second-largest domestic producer of rock salt.
1. The passage is chiefly concerned with
(A) arguing against the increased internationalization of
United States corporations
(B) warning that the application of laws affecting trade
frequently has unintended consequences
(C) demonstrating that foreign-based firms receive more
subsidies from their governments than United States
firms receive from the United States government
(D) advocating the use of trade restrictions for
“dumped” products but not for other imports
(E) recommending a uniform method for handling
claims of unfair trade practices
2. It can be inferred from the passage that the minimal
basis for a complaint to the International Trade
Commission is which of the following?
(A) A foreign competitor has received a subsidy from a
(B) A foreign competitor has substantially increased the
volume of products shipped to the United States.
(C) A foreign competitor is selling products in the
United States at less than fair market value.
(D) The company requesting import relief has been
injured by the sale of imports in the United States.
(E) The company requesting import relief has been
barred from exporting products to the country of its
3. The last paragraph performs which of the following
functions in the passage?
(A) It summarizes the discussion thus far and suggests
additional areas of research.
(B) It presents a recommendation based on the evidence
(C) It discusses an exceptional case in which the results
expected by the author of the passage were not
(D) It introduces an additional area of concern not
(E) It cites a specific case that illustrates a problem
presented more generally in the previous paragraph.
4. The passage warns of which of the following dangers?
(A) Companies in the United States may receive no
protection from imports unless they actively seek
protection from import competition.
(B) Companies that seek legal protection from import
competition may incur legal costs that far exceed
any possible gain.
(C) Companies that are United States-owned but operate
internationally may not be eligible for protection
from import competition under the laws of the
countries in which their plants operate.
(D) Companies that are not United States-owned may
seek legal protection from import competition under
United States import relief laws.
(E) Companies in the United States that import raw
materials may have to pay duties on those materials.
5. The passage suggests that which of the following is
most likely to be true of United States trade laws?
(A) They will eliminate the practice of “dumping”
products in the United States.
(B) They will enable manufacturers in the United
States to compete more profitably outside the
(C) They will affect United States trade with Canada
more negatively than trade with other nations.
(D) Those that help one unit within a parent company
will not necessarily help other units in the company.
(E) Those that are applied to international companies
will accomplish their intended result.
6. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
believes which of the following about the complaint
mentioned in the last paragraph?
(A) The ITC acted unfairly toward the complainant
in its investigation.
(B) The complaint violated the intent of import relief
(C) The response of the ITC to the complaint provided
suitable relief from unfair trade practices to the
(D) The ITC did not have access to appropriate
information concerning the case.
(E) Each of the companies involved in the complaint
acted in its own best interest.
7. According to the passage, companies have the general
impression that International Trade Commission import
relief practices have
(A) caused unpredictable fluctuations in volumes of
imports and exports
(B) achieved their desired effect only under unusual
(C) actually helped companies that have requested
(D) been opposed by the business community
(E) had less impact on international companies than the
business community expected
8. According to the passage, the International Trade
Commission is involved in which of the following?
(A) Investigating allegations of unfair import
(B) Granting subsidies to companies in the United States
that have been injured by import competition
(C) Recommending legislation to ensure fair
(D) Identifying international corporations that wish to
build plants in the United States
(E) Assisting corporations in the United States that wish
to compete globally
At the end of the nineteenth century, a rising interest
in Native American customs and an increasing desire to
understand Native American culture prompted ethnolo-
gists to begin recording the life stories of Native Amer-
(5) ican. Ethnologists had a distinct reason for wanting to
hear the stories: they were after linguistic or anthropo-
logical data that would supplement their own field
observations, and they believed that the personal
stories, even of a single individual, could increase their
(10) understanding of the cultures that they had been
observing from without. In addition many ethnologists
at the turn of the century believed that Native Amer-
ican manners and customs were rapidly disappearing,
and that it was important to preserve for posterity as
(15) much information as could be adequately recorded
before the cultures disappeared forever.
There were, however, arguments against this method
as a way of acquiring accurate and complete informa-
tion. Franz Boas, for example, described autobiogra-
(20) phies as being “of limited value, and useful chiefly for
the study of the perversion of truth by memory,” while
Paul Radin contended that investigators rarely spent
enough time with the tribes they were observing, and
inevitably derived results too tinged by the investi-
(25) gator’s own emotional tone to be reliable.
Even more importantly, as these life stories moved
from the traditional oral mode to recorded written
form, much was inevitably lost. Editors often decided
what elements were significant to the field research on a
(30) given tribe. Native Americans recognized that the
essence of their lives could not be communicated in
English and that events that they thought significant
were often deemed unimportant by their interviewers.
Indeed, the very act of telling their stories could force
(35) Native American narrators to distort their cultures, as
taboos had to be broken to speak the names of dead
relatives crucial to their family stories.
Despite all of this, autobiography remains a useful
tool for ethnological research: such personal reminis-
(40) cences and impressions, incomplete as they may be, are
likely to throw more light on the working of the mind
and emotions than any amount of speculation from an
ethnologist or ethnological theorist from another
1. Which of the following best describes the organization
of the passage?
(A) The historical backgrounds of two currently used
research methods are chronicled.
(B) The validity of the data collected by using two
different research methods is compared.
(C) The usefulness of a research method is questioned
and then a new method is proposed.
(D) The use of a research method is described and the
limitations of the results obtained are discussed.
(E) A research method is evaluated and the changes
necessary for its adaptation to other subject areas are
2. Which of the following is most similar to the actions of
nineteenth-century ethnologists in their editing of the
life stories of Native Americans?
(A) A witness in a jury trial invokes the Fifth
Amendment in order to avoid relating personally
(B) A stockbroker refuses to divulge the source of her
information on the possible future increase in a
(C) A sports announcer describes the action in a team
sport with which he is unfamiliar.
(D) A chef purposely excludes the special ingredient
from the recipe of his prizewinning dessert.
(E) A politician fails to mention in a campaign speech
the similarities in the positions held by her opponent
for political office and by herself.
3. According to the passage, collecting life stories can be a
useful methodology because
(A) life stories provide deeper insights into a culture
than the hypothesizing of academics who are not
members of that culture
(B) life stories can be collected easily and they are not
subject to invalid interpretations
(C) ethnologists have a limited number of research
methods from which to choose
(D) life stories make it easy to distinguish between the
important and unimportant features of a culture
(E) the collection of life stories does not require a
culturally knowledgeable investigator
4. Information in the passage suggests that which of
the following may be a possible way to eliminate
bias in the editing of life stories?
(A) Basing all inferences made about the culture
on an ethnological theory
(B) Eliminating all of the emotion-laden information
reported by the informant
(C) Translating the informant’s words into the
(D) Reducing the number of questions and carefully
specifying the content of the questions that the
investigator can ask the informant
(E) Reporting all of the information that the informant
provides regardless of the investigator’s personal
opinion about its intrinsic value
5. The primary purpose of the passage as a whole is to
(A) question an explanation
(B) correct a misconception
(C) critique a methodology
(D) discredit an idea
(E) clarify an ambiguity
6. It can be inferred from the passage that a characteristic
of the ethnological research on Native Americans
conducted during the nineteenth century was the use
of which of the following?
(A) Investigators familiar with the culture under study
(B) A language other than the informant’s for recording
(C) Life stories as the ethnologist’s primary source of
(D) Complete transcriptions of informants’ descriptions
of tribal beliefs
(E) Stringent guidelines for the preservation of cultural
7. The passage mentions which of the following as a factor
that can affect the accuracy of ethnologists’
transcriptions of life stories?
(A) The informants’ social standing within the culture
(B) The inclusiveness of the theory that provided the
basis for the research
(C) The length of time the researchers spent in the
culture under study
(D) The number of life stories collected by the
(E) The verifiability of the information provided by the
8. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would
be most likely to agree with which of the following
statements about the usefulness of life stories as a source
of ethnographic information?
(A) They can be a source of information about how
people in a culture view the world.
(B) They are most useful as a source of linguistic
(C) They require editing and interpretation before they
can be useful.
(D) They are most useful as a source of information
(E) They provide incidental information rather than
significant insights into a way of life.
All of the cells in a particular plant start out with the
same complement of genes. How then can these cells
differentiate and form structures as different as roots,
stems, leaves, and fruits? The answer is that only a
(5) small subset of the genes in a particular kind of cell are
expressed, or turned on, at a given time. This is accom-
plished by a complex system of chemical messengers
that in plants include hormones and other regulatory
molecules. Five major hormones have been identified:
(10) auxin, abscisic acid, cytokinin, ethylene, and gibberel-
lin. Studies of plants have now identified a new class of
regulatory molecules called oligosaccharins.
Unlike the oligosaccharins, the five well-known plant
hormones are pleiotropic rather than specific, that is,
(15) each has more than one effect on the growth and devel-
opment of plants. The five has so many simultaneous
effects that they are not very useful in artificially
controlling the growth of crops. Auxin, for instance,
stimulates the rate of cell elongation, causes shoots to
(20) grow up and roots to grow down, and inhibits the
growth of lateral shoots. Auxin also causes the plant to
develop a vascular system, to form lateral roots, and to
The pleiotropy of the five well-studied plant
(25) hormones is somewhat analogous to that of certain
hormones in animal. For example, hormones from the
hypothalamus in the brain stimulate the anterior lobe
of the pituitary gland to synthesize and release many
different hormones, one of which stimulates the release
(30) of hormones from the adrenal cortex. These hormones
have specific effects on target organs all over the body.
One hormone stimulates the thyroid gland, for
example, another the ovarian follicle cells, and so forth.
In other words, there is a hierarchy of hormones.
(35) Such a hierarchy may also exist in plants. Oligosac-
charins are fragments of the cell wall released by
enzymes: different enzymes release different oligosac-
charins. There are indications that pleiotropic plant
hormones may actually function by activating the
(40) enzymes that release these other, more specific chemical
messengers from the cell wall.
1. According to the passage, the five well-known plant
hormones are not useful in controlling the growth of
(A) it is not known exactly what functions the hormones
(B) each hormone has various effects on plants
(C) none of the hormones can function without the
(D) each hormone has different effects on different kinds
(E) each hormone works on only a small subset of a
cell’s genes at any particular time
2. The passage suggests that the place of hypothalamic
hormones in the hormonal hierarchies of animals is
similar to the place of which of the following in plants?
(A) Plant cell walls
(B) The complement of genes in each plant cell
(C) A subset of a plant cell’s gene complement
(D) The five major hormones
(E) The oligosaccharins
3. The passage suggests that which of the following is a
function likely to be performed by an oligosaccharin?
(A) To stimulate a particular plant cell to become part of
a plant’s root system
(B) To stimulate the walls of a particular cell to produce
(C) To activate enzymes that release specific chemical
messengers from plant cell walls
(D) To duplicate the gene complement in a particular
(E) To produce multiple effects on a particular
subsystem of plant cells
4. The author mentions specific effects that auxin has on
plant development in order to illustrate the
(A) point that some of the effects of plant hormones can
(B) way in which hormones are produced by plants
(C) hierarchical nature of the functioning of plant
(D) differences among the best-known plant hormones
(E) concept of pleiotropy as it is exhibited by plant
5. According to the passage, which of the following best
describes a function performed by oligosaccharins?
(A) Regulating the daily functioning of a plant’s cells
(B) Interacting with one another to produce different
(C) Releasing specific chemical messengers from a
plant’s cell walls
(D) Producing the hormones that cause plant cells to
differentiate to perform different functions
(E) Influencing the development of a plant’s cells by
controlling the expression of the cells’ genes
6. The passage suggests that, unlike the pleiotropic
hormones, oligosaccharins could be used effectively
(A) trace the passage of chemicals through the walls of
(B) pinpoint functions of other plant hormones
(C) artificially control specific aspects of the
development of crops
(D) alter the complement of genes in the cells of plants
(E) alter the effects of the five major hormones on
7. The author discusses animal hormones primarily in
(A) introduce the idea of a hierarchy of hormones
(B) explain the effects that auxin has on plant cells
(C) contrast the functioning of plant hormones and
(D) illustrate the way in which particular hormones
(E) explain the distinction between hormones and
In 1977 the prestigious Ewha Women’s University in
Seoul, Korea, announced the opening of the first
women’s studies program in Asia. Few academic
programs have ever received such public attention. In
(5) broadcast debates, critics dismissed the program as a
betrayal of national identity, an imitation of Western
ideas, and a distraction from the real task of national
unification and economic development. Even supporters
underestimated the program ; they thought it would be
(10) merely another of the many Western ideas that had
already proved useful in Asian culture, akin to airlines,
electricity, and the assembly line. The founders of the
program, however, realized that neither view was
correct. They had some reservations about the appli-
(15) cability of Western feminist theories to the role of
women in Asia and felt that such theories should be
closely examined. Their approach has thus far yielded
important critiques of Western theory, informed by the
special experience of Asian women.
(20) For instance, like the Western feminist critique of the
Freudian model of the human psyche, the Korean critique finds Freudian theory culture-bound, but in
ways different from those cited by Western theorists.
The Korean theorists claim that Freudian theory
(25) assumes the universality of the Western nuclear, male-
headed family and focuses on the personality formation
of the individual, independent of society, An analysis
based on such assumptions could be valid for a highly
competitive, individualistic society. In the Freudian
(30) family drama, family members are assumed to be
engaged in a Darwinian struggle against each other—
father against son and sibling against sibling. Such a
concept of projects the competitive model of Western
society onto human personalities. But in the Asian
(35) concept of personality there is no ideal attached to indi
vidualism or to the independent self. The Western model
of personality development does not explain major char-
acteristics of the Korean personality, which is social and
group-centered. The “self” is a social being defined by
(40) and acting in a group, and the well-being of both men
and women is determined by the equilibrium of the
group, not by individual self-assertion. The ideal is one
In such a context, what is recognized as “depen-
(45) dency” in Western psychiatric terms is not, in Korean
terms, an admission of weakness or failure. All this bears
directly on the Asian perception of men’s and women’s
psychology because men are also “ dependent”, In
Korean culture, men cry and otherwise easily show their
(50) emotions, something that might be considered a betrayal
of masculinity in Western culture. In the kinship-based
society of Korea, four generations may live in the same
house, which means that people can be sons and daugh-
ters all their lives, whereas in Western culture, the roles
of husband and son, wife and daughter, are often incom-
1. Which of the following best summarizes the content of
(A) A critique of a particular women’s studies program
(B) A report of work in social theory done by a
particular women’s studies program
(C) An assessment of the strengths and weaknesses
of a particular women’s studies program
(D) An analysis of the philosophy underlying
women’s studies programs
(E) An abbreviated history of Korean women’s
2. It can be inferred from the passage that Korean
scholars in the field of women’s studies undertook
an analysis of Freudian theory as a response to
which of the following?
(A) Attacks by critics of the Ewha women’s studies
(B) The superficiality of earlier critiques of Freudian
(C) The popularity of Freud in Korean psychiatric
(D) Their desire to encourage Korean scholars to
adopt the Freudian model
(E) Their assessment of the relevance and limitations of
Western feminist theory with respect to Korean
3. Which of the following conclusions about the
introduction of Western ideas to Korean society can be
supported by information contained in the passage?
(A) Except for technological innovations, few Western
ideas have been successfully transplanted into
(B) The introduction of Western ideas to Korean society
is viewed by some Koreans as a challenge to
(C) The development of the Korean economy depends
heavily on the development of new academic
programs modeled after Western programs.
(D) The extent to which Western ideas must be adapted
for acceptance by Korean society is minimal.
(E) The introduction of Western ideas to Korean society
accelerated after 1977.
4. It can be inferred from the passage that the broadcast
media in Korea considered the establishment of the
Ewha women’s studies program
5. It can be inferred from the passage that the position
taken by some of the supporters of the Ewha women’s
studies program was problematic to the founders of the
program because those supporters
(A) assumed that the program would be based on the
uncritical adoption of Western theory
(B) failed to show concern for the issues of national
unification and economic development
(C) were unfamiliar with Western feminist theory
(D) were not themselves scholars in the field of
(E) accepted the universality of Freudian theory
6. Which of the following statements is most consistent
with the view of personality development held by the
Ewha women’s studies group?
(A) Personality development occurs in identifiable
stages, beginning with dependency in childhood
and ending with independence in adulthood.
(B) Any theory of personality development, in order
to be valid, must be universal.
(C) Personality development is influenced by the
characteristics of the society in which a person
(D) Personality development is hindered if a person
is not permitted to be independent.
(E) No theory of personality development can account
for the differences between Korean and Western
7. Which of the following statements about the Western
feminist critique of Freudian theory can be supported
by information contained in the passage?
(A) It recognizes the influence of Western culture on
(B) It was written after 1977.
(C) It acknowledges the universality of the nuclear,
(D) It challenges Freud’s analysis of the role of
daughters in Western society.
(E) It fails to address the issue of competitiveness in
8. According to the passage, critics of the Ewha women’s
studies program cited the program as a threat to which
of the following?
Ⅰ. National identity
Ⅱ. National unification
Ⅲ. Economic development
(A) Ⅰ only
(B) Ⅰ and Ⅱ only
(C) Ⅰ,Ⅱ,and Ⅲ only
(D) Ⅱ, Ⅲ, and Ⅳ only
(E) Ⅰ,Ⅱ,Ⅲ, and Ⅳ
In choosing a method for determining climatic condi-
tions that existed in the past, paleoclimatologists invoke
four principal criteria. First, the material—rocks, lakes,
vegetation, etc—on which the method relies must be
(5) widespread enough to provide plenty of information,
since analysis of material that is rarely encountered will
not permit correlation with other regions or with other
periods of geological history. Second, in the process of
formation, the material must have received an environ-
(10) mental signal that reflects a change in climate and that
can be deciphered by modern physical or chemical
means. Third, at least some of the material must have
retained the signal unaffected by subsequent changes in
the environment. Fourth, it must be possible to deter-
(15) mine the time at which the inferred climatic conditions
held. This last criterion is more easily met in dating
marine sediments, because dating of only a small
number of layers in a marine sequence allows the age of
other layers to be estimated fairly reliably by extrapola-
(20) tion and interpolation. By contrast, because sedimenta-
tion is much less continuous in continental regions, esti-
mating the age of a continental bed from the known
ages of beds above and below is more risky.
One very old method used in the investigation of past
(25) climatic conditions involves the measurement of water
levels in ancient lakes. In temperate regions, there are
enough lakes for correlations between them to give us a
reliable picture. In arid and semiarid regions, on the
other hand, the small number of lakes and the great
(30) distances between them reduce the possibilities for corre-
lation. Moreover, since lake levels are controlled by rates
of evaporation as well as by precipitation, the interpreta-
tion of such levels is ambiguous. For instance, the fact
that lake levels in the semiarid southwestern United
(35) States appear to have been higher during the last ice age
than they are now was at one time attributed to
increased precipitation. On the basis of snow-line eleva-
tions, however, it has been concluded that the climate
then was not necessarily wetter than it is now, but rather
(40) that both summers and winters were cooler, resulting in
Another problematic method is to reconstruct former
climates on the basis of pollen profiles. The type of vege-
tation in a specific region is determined by identifying
(45) and counting the various pollen grains found there.
Although the relationship between vegetation and
climate is not as direct as the relationship between
climate and lake levels, the method often works well in
the temperate zones. In arid and semiarid regions in
(50) which there is not much vegetation, however, small
changes in one or a few plant types can change the
picture dramatically, making accurate correlations
between neighboring areas difficult to obtain.
1. Which of the following statements about the
difference between marine and continental
sedimentation is supported by information in the
(A) Data provided by dating marine sedimentation is
more consistent with researchers’ findings in
other disciplines than is data provided by dating
(B) It is easier to estimate the age of a layer in a
sequence of continental sedimentation than it
is to estimate the age of a layer in a sequence
of marine sedimentation.
(C) Marine sedimentation is much less widespread
than continental sedimentation.
(D) Researchers are more often forced to rely on
extrapolation when dating a layer of marine
sedimentation than when dating a layer of
(E) Marine sedimentation is much more continuous
than is continental sedimentation.
2. Which of the following statements best describes the
organization of the passage as a whole?
(A) The author describes a method for determining past
climatic conditions and then offers specific
examples of situations in which it has been used.
(B) The author discusses the method of dating marine
and continental sequences and then explains how
dating is more difficult with lake levels than with
(C) The author describes the common requirements of
methods for determining past climatic conditions
and then discusses examples of such methods.
(D) The author describes various ways of choosing a
material for determining past climatic conditions
and then discusses how two such methods have
yielded contradictory data.
(E) The author describes how methods for determining
past climatic conditions were first developed and
then describes two of the earliest known methods.
3. It can be inferred from the passage that
paleoclimatologists have concluded which of the
following on the basis of their study of snow-line
elevations in the southwestern United States?
(A) There is usually more precipitation during an ice age
because of increased amounts of evaporation.
(B) There was less precipitation during the last ice age
than there is today.
(C) Lake levels in the semiarid southwestern United
States were lower during the last ice age than they
(D) During the last ice age, cooler weather led to lower
lake levels than paleoclimatologists had previously
(E) The high lake levels during the last ice age may have
been a result of less evaporation rather than more
4. Which of the following would be the most likely topic
for a paragraph that logically continues the passage?
(A) The kinds of plants normally found in arid regions
(B) The effect of variation in lake levels on pollen
(C) The material best suited to preserving signals of
(D) Other criteria invoked by paleoclimatologists when
choosing a method to determine past climatic
(E) A third method for investigating past climatic
5. The author discusses lake levels in the southwestern
United States in order to
(A) illustrate the mechanics of the relationship between
lake level, evaporation, and precipitation
(B) provide an example of the uncertainty involved in
interpreting lake levels
(C) prove that there are not enough ancient lakes with
which to make accurate correlations
(D) explain the effects of increased rates of evaporation
on levels of precipitation
(E) suggest that snow-line elevations are invariably
more accurate than lake levels in determining rates
of precipitation at various points in the past
6. It can be inferred from the passage that an
environmental signal found in geological material
would not be useful to paleoclimatologists if it
(A) had to be interpreted by modern chemical means
(B) reflected a change in climate rather than a long-
term climatic condition
(C) was incorporated into a material as the material was
(D) also reflected subsequent environmental changes
(E) was contained in a continental rather than a marine
7. According to the passage, the material used to determine
past climatic conditions must be widespread for which
of the following reasons?
Ⅰ.Paleoclimatologists need to make comparisons
between periods of geological history.
Ⅱ. Paleoclimatologists need to compare materials that
have supported a wide variety of vegetation.
Ⅲ. Paleoclimatologists need to make comparisons with
data collected in other regions.
(A) Ⅰ only
(B) Ⅱ only
(C) Ⅰ and Ⅱ only
(D) Ⅰ and Ⅲ only
(E) Ⅱ and Ⅲ only
8. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage
about the study of past climates in arid and semiarid
(A) It is sometimes more difficult to determine past
climatic conditions in arid and semiarid regions than
in temperate regions.
(B) Although in the past more research has been done on
temperate regions, paleoclimatologists have
recently turned their attention to arid and semiarid
(C) Although more information about past climates can
be gathered in arid and semiarid than in temperate
regions, dating this information is more difficult.
(D) It is difficult to study the climatic history of arid and
semiarid regions because their climates have tended
to vary more than those of temperate regions.
(E) The study of past climates in arid and semiarid
regions has been neglected because temperate
regions support a greater variety of plant and animal
Since the late 1970’s, in the face of a severe loss of
market share in dozens of industries, manufacturers in
the United States have been trying to improve produc-
tivity—and therefore enhance their international
(5) competitiveness—through cost—cutting programs. (Cost-
cutting here is defined as raising labor output while
holding the amount of labor constant.) However, from
1978 through 1982, productivity—the value of goods
manufactured divided by the amount of labor input—
(10) did not improve; and while the results were better in the
business upturn of the three years following, they ran 25
percent lower than productivity improvements during
earlier, post-1945 upturns. At the same time, it became clear that the harder manufactures worked to imple-
(15) ment cost-cutting, the more they lost their competitive
With this paradox in mind, I recently visited 25
companies; it became clear to me that the cost-cutting
approach to increasing productivity is fundamentally
(20) flawed. Manufacturing regularly observes a “40, 40, 20”
rule. Roughly 40 percent of any manufacturing-based
competitive advantage derives from long-term changes
in manufacturing structure (decisions about the number,
size, location, and capacity of facilities) and in approaches
(25) to materials. Another 40 percent comes from major
changes in equipment and process technology. The final
20 percent rests on implementing conventional cost-
cutting. This rule does not imply that cost-cutting should
not be tried. The well-known tools of this approach—
(30) including simplifying jobs and retraining employees to
work smarter, not harder—do produce results. But the
tools quickly reach the limits of what they can
Another problem is that the cost-cutting approach
(35) hinders innovation and discourages creative people. As
Abernathy’s study of automobile manufacturers has
shown, an industry can easily become prisoner of its
own investments in cost-cutting techniques, reducing its
ability to develop new products. And managers under
(40) pressure to maximize cost-cutting will resist innovation
because they know that more fundamental changes in
processes or systems will wreak havoc with the results on
which they are measured. Production managers have
always seen their job as one of minimizing costs and
(45) maximizing output. This dimension of performance has
until recently sufficed as a basis of evaluation, but it has
created a penny-pinching, mechanistic culture in most
factories that has kept away creative managers.
Every company I know that has freed itself from the
(50) paradox has done so, in part, by developing and imple-
menting a manufacturing strategy. Such a strategy
focuses on the manufacturing structure and on equip-
ment and process technology. In one company a manu-
facturing strategy that allowed different areas of the
(55) factory to specialize in different markets replaced the
conventional cost-cutting approach; within three years
the company regained its competitive advantage.
Together with such strategies, successful companies are
also encouraging managers to focus on a wider set of
objectives besides cutting costs. There is hope for manufacturing, but it clearly rests on a different way of
1.The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
(A) summarizing a thesis
(B) recommending a different approach
(C) comparing points of view
(D) making a series of predictions
(E) describing a number of paradoxes
2. It can be inferred from the passage that the manufacturrs
mentioned in line 2 expected that the measures they
(A) encourage innovation
(B) keep labor output constant
(C) increase their competitive advantage
(D) permit business upturns to be more easily predicted
(E) cause managers to focus on a wider set of objectives
3. The primary function of the first paragraph of the
passage is to
(A) outline in brief the author’s argument
(B) anticipate challenges to the prescriptions that follow
(C) clarify some disputed definitions of economic terms
(D) summarize a number of long-accepted explanations
(E) present a historical context for the author’s
4. The author refers to Abernathy’s study (line 36) most
probably in order to
(A) qualify an observation about one rule governing
(B) address possible objections to a recommendation
about improving manufacturing competitiveness
(C) support an earlier assertion about one method of
(D) suggest the centrality in the United States economy
of a particular manufacturing industry
(E) given an example of research that has questioned the
wisdom of revising a manufacturing strategy
5. The author’s attitude toward the culture in most factories
is best described as
6. In the passage, the author includes all of the following
(A) personal observation
(B) a business principle
(C) a definition of productivity
(D) an example of a successful company
(E) an illustration of a process technology
7. The author suggests that implementing conventional
cost-cutting as a way of increasing manufacturing
competitiveness is a strategy that is
(A) flawed and ruinous
(B) shortsighted and difficult to sustain
(C) popular and easily accomplished
(D) useful but inadequate
(E) misunderstood but promising
The settlement of the United States has occupied
traditional historians since 1893 when Frederick Jackson
Turner developed his Frontier Thesis, a thesis that
explained American development in terms of westward
(5) expansion. From the perspective of women’s history,
Turner’s exclusively masculine assumptions constitute a
major drawback: his defenders and critics alike have
reconstructed men’s, not women’s, lives on the frontier.
However, precisely because of this masculine orientation,
(10)revising the Frontier Thesis by focusing on women’s
experience introduces new themes into women’s
history—woman as lawmaker and entrepreneur—and,
consequently, new interpretations of women’s relation-
ship to capital, labor, and statute.
(15)Turner claimed that the frontier produced the indivi-
dualism that is the hallmark of American culture, and
that this individualism in turn promoted democratic
institutions and economic equality. He argued for the
frontier as an agent of social change. Most novelists and
(20) historians writing in the early to midtwentieth century
who considered women in the West, when they consid-
ered women at all, fell under Turner’s spell. In their
works these authors tended to glorify women’s contribu-
tions to frontier life. Western women, in Turnerian tradi-
(25) tion, were a fiercely independent, capable, and durable
lot, free from the constraints binding their eastern sisters.
This interpretation implied that the West provided a
congenial environment where women could aspire to
their own goals, free from constrictive stereotypes and
(30) sexist attitudes. In Turnerian terminology, the frontier
had furnished “a gate of escape from the bondage of the
By the middle of the twentieth century, the Frontier
Thesis fell into disfavor among historians. Later, Reac-
(35) tionist writers took the view that frontier women were
lonely, displaced persons in a hostile milieu that intensi-
fied the worst aspects of gender relations. The renais-
sance of the feminist movement during the 1970’s led to
the Stasist school, which sidestepped the good bad
(40) dichotomy and argued that frontier women lived lives
similar to the live of women in the East. In one now-
standard text, Faragher demonstrated the persistence of
the “cult of true womanhood” and the illusionary qual-
ity of change on the westward journey. Recently the
(45) Stasist position has been revised but not entirely
discounted by new research.
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) provide a framework within which the history of
women in nineteenth-century America can be
(B) discuss divergent interpretations of women’s
experience on the western frontier
(C) introduce a new hypothesis about women’s
experience in nineteenth-century America
(D) advocate an empirical approach to women’s
experience on the western frontier
(E) resolve ambiguities in several theories about
women’s experience on the western frontier
2. Which of the following can be inferred about the
novelists and historians mentioned in lines 19-20?
(A) They misunderstood the powerful influence of
constrictive stereotypes on women in the East.
(B) They assumed that the frontier had offered more
opportunities to women than had the East.
(C) They included accurate information about women’s
experiences on the frontier.
(D) They underestimated the endurance and fortitude of
(E) They agreed with some of Turner’s assumptions
about frontier women, but disagreed with other
assumptions that he made.
3. Which of the following, if true, would provide
additional evidence for the Stasists’ argument as it is
described in the passage?
(A) Frontier women relied on smaller support groups of
relatives and friends in the West than they had in the
(B) The urban frontier in the West offered more
occupational opportunity than the agricultural
(C) Women participated more fully in the economic
decisions of the family group in the West than they
had in the East.
(D) Western women received financial compensation for
labor that was comparable to what women received
in the East.
(E) Western women did not have an effect on divorce
laws, but lawmakers in the West were more
responsive to women’s concerns than lawmakers in
the East were.
4. According to the passage, Turner makes which of the
following connections in his Frontier Thesis?
Ⅰ. A connection between American individualism and
Ⅱ. A connection between geographical expansion and
Ⅲ. A connection between social change and financial
(A) I only
(C) Ⅲ only
(D) Ⅰand Ⅱ only
(E) Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅲ
5. It can be inferred that which of the following statements
is consistent with the Reactionist position as it is
described in the passage?
(A) Continuity, not change, marked women’s lives as
they moved from East to West.
(B) Women’s experience on the North American frontier
has not received enough attention from modern
(C) Despite its rigors, the frontier offered women
opportunities that had not been available in the East.
(D) Gender relations were more difficult for women in
the West than they were in the East.
(E) Women on the North American frontier adopted new
roles while at the same time reaffirming traditional
6. Which of the following best describes the organization
of the passage?
(A) A current interpretation of a phenomenon is
described and then ways in which it was developed
(B) Three theories are presented and then a new
hypothesis that discounts those theories is described.
(C) An important theory and its effects are discussed and
then ways in which it has been revised are described.
(D) A controversial theory is discussed and then
viewpoints both for and against it are described.
(E) A phenomenon is described and then theories
concerning its correctness are discussed.
7. Which of the following is true of the Stasist school as it
is described in the passage?
(A) It provides new interpretations of women’s
relationship to work and the law.
(B) It resolves some of the ambiguities inherent in
Turnerian and Reactionist thought.
(C) It has recently been discounted by new research
gathered on women’s experience.
(D) It avoids extreme positions taken by other writers on
(E) It was the first school of thought to suggest
substantial revisions to the Frontier Thesis.
Studies of the Weddell seal in the laboratory have
described the physiological mechanisms that allow the
seal to cope with the extreme oxygen deprivation that
occurs during its longest dives, which can extend 500
(5) meters below the ocean’s surface and last for over 70
minutes. Recent field studies, however, suggest that
during more typical dives in the wild, this seal’s physio-
logical behavior is different.
In the laboratory, when the seal dives below the
(10) surface of the water and stops breathing, its heart beats
more slowly, requiring less oxygen, and its arteries
become constricted, ensuring that the seal’s blood
remains concentrated near those organs most crucial to
its ability to navigate underwater. The seal essentially
(15) shuts off the flow of blood to other organs, which either
stop functioning until the seal surfaces or switch to an
anaerobic (oxygen-independent) metabolism. The latter
results in the production of large amounts of lactic acid
which can adversely affect the pH of the seal’s blood
(20) but since the anaerobic metabolism occurs only in those
tissues which have been isolated from the seal’s blood
supply, the lactic acid is released into the seal’s blood
only after the seal surfaces, when the lungs, liver, and
other organs quickly clear the acid from the seal’s blood-
Recent field studies, however, reveal that on dives in
the wild, the seal usually heads directly for its prey and
returns to the surface in less than twenty minutes. The
absence of high levels of lactic acid in the seal’s blood
(30) after such dives suggests that during them, the seal’s
organs do not resort to the anaerobic metabolism
observed in the laboratory, but are supplied with oxygen
from the blood. The seal’s longer excursions underwater,
during which it appears to be either exploring distant
(35) routes or evading a predator, do evoke the diving
response seen in the laboratory. But why do the seal’s
laboratory dives always evoke this response, regardless
of their length or depth? Some biologists speculate that
because in laboratory dives the seal is forcibly
(40) submerged, it does not know how long it will remain
underwater and so prepares for the worst.
1. The passage provides information to support which of
the following generalizations?
(A) Observations of animals’ physiological behavior in
the wild are not reliable unless verified by laboratory
(B) It is generally less difficult to observe the
physiological behavior of an animal in the wild than
in the laboratory.
(C) The level of lactic acid in an animal’s blood is likely
to be higher when it is searching for prey than when
it s evading predators.
(D) The level of lactic acid in an animal’s blood is likely
to be lowest during those periods in which it
experiences oxygen deprivation.
(E) The physiological behavior of animals in a
laboratory setting is not always consistent with
their physiological behavior in the wild.
2. It can be inferred from the passage that by describing the
Weddell seal as preparing “for the worst” (line 41),
biologists mean that it
(A) prepares to remain underwater for no longer than
(B) exhibits physiological behavior similar to that which
characterizes dives in which it heads directly for its
(C) exhibits physiological behavior similar to that which
characterizes its longest dives in the wild.
(D) begins to exhibit predatory behavior
(E) clears the lactic acid from its blood before
attempting to dive
3. The passage suggests that during laboratory dives, the
pH of the Weddell seal’s blood is not adversely
affected by the
production of lactic acid because
(A) only those organs that are essential to the seal’s
ability to navigate underwater revert to an anaerobic
(B) the seal typically reverts to an anaerobic metabolism
only at the very end of the dive
(C) organs that revert to an anaerobic metabolism are
temporarily isolated from the seal’s bloodstream
(D) oxygen continues to be supplied to organs that clear
lactic acid from the seal’s bloodstream
(E) the seal remains submerged for only short periods of
4. Which of the following best summarizes the main point
of the passage?
(A) Recent field studies have indicated that descriptions
of the physiological behavior of the Weddell seal
during laboratory dives are not applicable to its most
typical dives in the wild.
(B) The Weddell seal has developed a number of unique
mechanisms that enable it to remain submerged at
depths of up to 500 meters for up to 70 minutes.
(C) The results of recent field studies have made it
necessary for biologists to revise previous
perceptions of how the Weddell seal behaves
physiologically during its longest dives in the wild.
(D) Biologists speculate that laboratory studies of the
physiological behavior of seals during dives lasting
more than twenty minutes would be more accurate if
the seals were not forcibly submerged.
(E) How the Weddell seal responds to oxygen
deprivation during its longest dives appears to
depend on whether the seal is searching for prey or
avoiding predators during such dives.
5. According to the author, which of the following is true
of the laboratory studies mentioned in line 1 ?
(A) They fail to explain how the seal is able to tolerate
the increased production of lactic acid by organs
that revert to an anaerobic metabolism during its
longest dives in the wild.
(B) They present an oversimplified account of
mechanisms that the Weddell seal relies on during its
longest dives in the wild.
(C) They provide evidence that undermines the view
that the Weddell seal relies on an anaerobic
metabolism during its most typical dives in the wild.
(D) They are based on the assumption that Weddell seals
rarely spend more than twenty minutes underwater
on a typical dive in the wild.
(E) They provide an accurate account of the
physiological behavior of Weddell seals during
those dives in the wild in which they are either
evading predators or exploring distant routes.
6. The author cites which of the following as characteristic
of the Weddell seal’s physiological behavior during
dives observed in the laboratory?
Ⅰ. A decrease in the rate at which the seal’s heart beats
Ⅱ. A constriction of the seal’s arteries
Ⅲ. A decrease in the levels of lactic acid in the seal’s
Ⅳ. A temporary halt in the functioning of certain organs
(A) Ⅰand Ⅲ only
(B) Ⅱ and Ⅳ only
(C) Ⅱ and Ⅲ only
(D) Ⅰ,Ⅱ, and Ⅳ only
(E) Ⅰ,Ⅲ, and Ⅳ only
7. The passage suggests that because Weddell seals are
forcibly submerged during laboratory dives, they do
which of the following?
(A) Exhibit the physiological responses that are
characteristic of dives in the wild that last less than
(B) Exhibit the physiological responses that are
characteristic of the longer dives they undertake in
(C) Cope with oxygen deprivation less effectively than
they do on typical dives in the wild.
(D) Produce smaller amounts of lactic acid than they do
on typical dives in the wild.
(E) Navigate less effectively than they do on typical
dives in the wild
Since the early 1970’s, historians have begun to
devote serious attention to the working class in the
United States. Yet while we now have studies of
working-class communities and culture, we know
(5) remarkably little of worklessness. When historians have
paid any attention at all to unemployment, they have
focused on the Great Depression of the 1930’s. The
narrowness of this perspective ignores the pervasive
recessions and joblessness of the previous decades, as
(10) Alexander Keyssar shows in his recent book. Examining
the period 1870-1920, Keyssar concentrates on Massa-
chusetts, where the historical materials are particularly
rich, and the findings applicable to other industrial
(15 ) The unemployment rates that Keyssar calculates
appear to be relatively modest, at least by Great Depres-
sion standards: during the worst years, in the 1870’s
and 1890’s, unemployment was around 15 percent. Yet
Keyssar rightly understands that a better way to
(20) measure the impact of unemployment is to calculate
unemployment frequencies—measuring the percentage
of workers who experience any unemployment in the
course of a year. Given this perspective, joblessness
looms much larger.
(25) Keyssar also scrutinizes unemployment patterns
according to skill level, ethnicity, race, age, class, and
gender. He finds that rates of joblessness differed
primarily according to class: those in middle-class and
white-collar occupations were far less likely to be unem-
(30) ployed. Yet the impact of unemployment on a specific
class was not always the same. Even when dependent on
the same trade, adjoining communities could have
dramatically different unemployment rates. Keyssar uses
these differential rates to help explain a phenomenon
(35) that has puzzled historians—the startlingly high rate of
geographical mobility in the nineteenth-century United
States. But mobility was not the dominant working-class
strategy for coping with unemployment, nor was assis-
tance from private charities or state agencies. Self-help
(40) and the help of kin got most workers through jobless
While Keyssar might have spent more time develop-
ing the implications of his findings on joblessness for
contemporary public policy, his study, in its thorough
(45) research and creative use of quantitative and qualitative
evidence, is a model of historical analysis.
1. The passage is primarily concerned with
(A) recommending a new course of investigation
(B) summarizing and assessing a study
(C) making distinctions among categories
(D) criticizing the current state of a field
(E) comparing and contrasting two methods for
2. The passage suggests that before the early 1970’s, which
of the following was true of the study by historians of
the working class in the United States?
(A) The study was infrequent or superficial, or both.
(B) The study was repeatedly criticized for its allegedly
(C) The study relied more on qualitative than
(D) The study focused more on the working-class
community than on working-class culture.
(E) The study ignored working-class joblessness during
the Great Depression.
3. According to the passage, which of the following is true
of Keyssar’s findings concerning unemployment in
(A) They tend to contradict earlier findings about such
(B) They are possible because Massachusetts has the
most easily accessible historical records.
(C) They are the first to mention the existence of high
rates of geographical mobility in the nineteenth
(D) They are relevant to a historical understanding of
the nature of unemployment in other states.
(E) They have caused historians to reconsider the role of
the working class during the Great Depression.
4. According to the passage, which of the following is true
of the unemployment rates mentioned in line 15
(A) They hovered, on average, around 15 percent during
the period 1870-1920.
(B) They give less than a full sense of the impact of
unemployment on working-class people.
(C) They overestimate the importance of middle class
and white-collar unemployment.
(D) They have been considered by many historians to
underestimate the extent of working-class
(E) They are more open to question when calculated for
years other than those of peak recession.
5. Which of the following statements about the
unemployment rate during the Great Depression can be
inferred from the passage?
(A) It was sometimes higher than 15 percent.
(B) It has been analyzed seriously only since the early
(C) It can be calculated more easily than can
(D) It was never as high as the rate during the 1870’s.
(E) It has been shown by Keyssar to be lower than
6. According to the passage, Keyssar considers which of the
following to be among the important predictors of the
likelihood that a particular person would be unemployed in
late nineteenth-century Massachusetts?
Ⅰ. The person’s class
Ⅱ. Where the person lived or worked
Ⅲ. The person’s age
(C) Ⅰand Ⅱ only
(D) Ⅰand Ⅲ only
(E) Ⅰ,Ⅱ, and Ⅲ
7. The author views Keyssar’s study with
(A) impatient disapproval
(B) wary concern
(C) polite skepticism
(D) scrupulous neutrality
(E) qualified admiration
8. Which of the following, if true, would most strongly
support Keyssar’s findings as they are described by the
(A) Boston, Massachusetts, and Quincy, Massachusetts,
adjoining communities, had a higher rate of
unemployment for working-class people in 1870
than in 1890.
(B) White-collar professionals such as attorneys had as
much trouble as day laborers in maintaining a steady
level of employment throughout the period 1870-
(C) Working-class women living in Cambridge,
Massachusetts, were more likely than working-class
men living in Cambridge to be unemployed for some
period of time during the year 1873.
(D) In the 1890’s, shoe-factory workers moved away in
large numbers from Chelmsford, Massachusetts,
where shoe factories were being replaced by other
industries, to adjoining West Chelmsford, where the
shoe industry flourished.
(E) In the late nineteenth century, workers of all classes
in Massachusetts were more likely than workers of all
classes in other states to move their place of
residence from one location to another within the
The number of women directors appointed to corpo-
rate boards in the United States has increased dramati-
cally, but the ratio of female to male directors remains
low. Although pressure to recruit women directors,
(5) unlike that to employ women in the general work force,
does not derive from legislation, it is nevertheless real.
Although small companies were the first to have
women directors, large corporations currently have a
higher percentage of women on their boards. When the
(10) chairs of these large corporations began recruiting
women to serve on boards, they initially sought women
who were chief executive officers (CEO’s) of large corpo-
rations. However, such women CEO’s are still rare. In
addition, the ideal of six CEO’s (female or male ) serving
(15) on the board of each of the largest corporations is realiz-
able only if every CEO serves on six boards. This raises
the specter of director overcommitment and the resultant
dilution of contribution. Consequently, the chairs next
sought women in business who had the equivalent of
(20) CEO experience. However, since it is only recently that
large numbers of women have begun to rise in manage-
ment, the chairs began to recruit women of high achieve-
ment outside the business world. Many such women are
well known for their contributions in government,
(25) education, and the nonprofit sector. The fact that the
women from these sectors who were appointed were
often acquaintances of the boards’ chairs seems quite
reasonable: chairs have always considered it important
for directors to interact comfortably in the boardroom.
30) Although many successful women from outside the
business world are unknown to corporate leaders, these
women are particularly qualified to serve on boards
because of the changing nature of corporations. Today a
company’s ability to be responsive to the concerns of the
35) community and the environment can influence that
company’s growth and survival. Women are uniquely
positioned to be responsive to some of these concerns.
Although conditions have changed, it should be remem-
bered that most directors of both sexes are over fifty
(40) years old. Women of that generation were often encour-
aged to direct their attention toward efforts to improve
the community. This fact is reflected in the career devel-
opment of most of the outstandingly successful women
of the generation now in their fifties, who currently serve
(45) on corporate boards: 25 percent are in education and
22 percent are in government, law, and the nonprofit
One organization of women directors is helping busi-
ness become more responsive to the changing needs of
(50) society by raising the level of corporate awareness about
social issues, such as problems with the economy,
government regulation, the aging population, and the
environment. This organization also serves as a resource
center of information on accomplished women who are
(55) potential candidates for corporate boards.
1. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree
with which of the following statements about
achievement of the “ideal” mentioned in line 14?
(A) It has only recently become a possibility.
(B) It would be easier to meet if more CEO’s were
(C) It is very close to being a reality for most corporate
(D) It might affect the quality of directors’ service to
(E) It would be more realizable if CEO’s had a more
extensive range of business experience.
2. According to the passage, the pressure to appoint
women to corporate boards differs from the pressure to
employ women in the work force in which of the
(A) Corporate boards are under less pressure because they
have such a small number of openings.
(B) Corporate boards have received less pressure from
stockholders, consumers, and workers within
companies to include women on their boards.
(C) Corporate boards have received less pressure from
the media and the public to include women on their
(D) Corporations have only recently been pressured to
include women on their boards.
(E) Corporations are not subject to statutory penalty for
failing to include women on their boards.
3. All of the following are examples of issues that the
organization described in the last paragraph would be
likely to advise corporations on EXCEPT
(A) long-term inflation
(B) health and safety regulations
(C) retirement and pension programs
(D) the energy shortage
(E) how to develop new markets
4. It can be inferred from the passage that, when seeking to
appoint new members to a corporation’s board, the chair
traditionally looked for candidates who
(A) had legal and governmental experience
(B) had experience dealing with community affairs
(C) could work easily with other members of the board
(D) were already involved in establishing policy for that
(E) had influential connections outside the business
5. According to the passage, which of the following is true
about women outside the business world who are
currently serving on corporate boards?
(A) Most do not serve on more than one board.
(B) A large percentage will eventually work on the staff
(C) Most were already known to the chairs of the board
to which they were appointed.
(D) A larger percentage are from government and law
than are from the nonprofit sector.
(E) Most are less than fifty years old.
6. The passage suggests that corporations of the past differ
from modern corporations in which of the following
(A) Corporations had greater input on government
policies affecting the business community.
(B) Corporations were less responsive to the financial
needs of their employees.
(C) The ability of a corporation to keep up with
changing markets was not a crucial factor in its
(D) A corporation’s effectiveness in coping with
community needs was less likely to affect its growth
(E) Corporations were subject to more stringent
7. Which of the following best describes the organization
of the passage?
(A) A problem is described, and then reasons why
various proposed solutions succeeded or failed are
(B) A problem is described, and then an advantage of
resolving it is offered.
(C) A problem is described, and then reasons for its
continuing existence are summarized.
(D) The historical origins of a problem are described,
and then various measures that have successfully
resolved it are discussed.
(E) The causes of a problem are described, and then its
effects are discussed.
8. It can be inferred from the passage that factors making
women uniquely valuable members of modern corporate
boards would include which of the following?
Ⅰ. The nature of modern corporations
Ⅱ. The increased number of women CEO’s
Ⅲ. The careers pursued by women currently available to
serve on corporate boards
(C) Ⅲ only
(D) Ⅰand Ⅲ only
(E) Ⅰ,Ⅱ, and Ⅲ
Increasingly, historians are blaming diseases imported
from the Old World for the staggering disparity between
the indigenous population of America in 1492—new esti-
mates of which soar as high as 100 million, or approxi-
(5) mately one-sixth of the human race at that time—and
the few million full-blooded Native Americans alive at
the end of the nineteenth century. There is no doubt that
chronic disease was an important factor in the precipi-
tous decline, and it is highly probable that the greatest
(10) killer was epidemic disease, especially as manifested in
Virgin-soil epidemics are those in which the popula-
tions at risk have had no previous contact with the
diseases that strike them and are therefore immunologi-
(15) cally almost defenseless. That virgin-soil epidemics were
important in American history is strongly indicated by
evidence that a number of dangerous maladies—small-
pox, measles, malaria, yellow fever, and undoubtedly
several more—were unknown in the pre-Columbian
(20) New World. The effects of their sudden introduction
are demonstrated in the early chronicles of America,
which contain reports of horrendous epidemics and steep
population declines, confirmed in many cases by recent
quantitative analyses of Spanish tribute records and
(25) other sources. The evidence provided by the documents
of British and French colonies is not as definitive
because the conquerors of those areas did not establish
permanent settlements and begin to keep continuous
records until the seventeenth century, by which time the
(30) worst epidemics had probably already taken place.
Furthermore, the British tended to drive the native
populations away, rather than enslaving them as the
Spaniards did, so that the epidemics of British America
occurred beyond the range of colonists’ direct
Even so, the surviving records of North America do
contain references to deadly epidemics among the indige-
nous population. In 1616-1619 an epidemic, possibly of
bubonic or pneumonic plague, swept coastal New
(40) England, killing as many as nine out of ten. During the
1630’s smallpox, the disease most fatal to the Native
American people, eliminated half the population of the
Huron and Iroquois confederations. In the 1820’s fever
devastated the people of the Columbia River area,
(45) killing eight out of ten of them.
Unfortunately, the documentation of these and other
epidemics is slight and frequently unreliable, and it is
ecessary to supplement what little we do know with
evidence from recent epidemics among Native Ameri-
(50) cans. For example, in 1952 an outbreak of measles
among the Native American inhabitants of Ungava Bay.
Quebec, affected 99 percent of the population and killed
7 percent, even though some had the benefit of modern
medicine. Cases such as this demonstrate that even
(55) diseases that are not normally fatal can have devastating
consequences when they strike an immunologically
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) refute a common misconception
(B) provide support for a hypothesis
(C) analyze an argument
(D) suggest a solution to a dilemma
(E) reconcile opposing viewpoints
2. According to the passage, virgin-soil epidemics can be
distinguished from other catastrophic outbreaks of
disease in that virgin-soil epidemics
(A) recur more frequently than other chronic diseases
(B) affect a minimum of one-half of a given population
(C) involve populations with no prior exposure to a
(D) usually involve a number of interacting diseases
(E) are less responsive to medical treatment than are
3. According to the passage, the British colonists
wereunlike the Spanish colonists in that the British
(A) collected tribute from the native population
(B) kept records from a very early date
(C) drove Native Americans off the land
(D) were unable to provide medical care against
(E) enslaved the native populations in America
4. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage
concerning Spanish tribute records?
(A) They mention only epidemics of smallpox.
(B) They were instituted in 1492.
(C) They were being kept prior to the seventeenth
(D) They provide quantitative and qualitative evidence
about Native American populations.
(E) They prove that certain diseases were unknown in
the pre-Columbian New World.
5. The author implies which of the following about
(A) It is not usually a fatal disease.
(B) It ceased to be a problem by the seventeenth century.
(C) It is the disease most commonly involved in virgin-
(D) It was not a significant problem in Spanish colonies.
(E) It affects only those who are immunologically
defenseless against it.
6. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage
about the Native American inhabitants of Ungava Bay?
(A) They were almost all killed by the 1952 epidemic.
(B) They were immunologically defenseless against
(C) They were the last native people to be struck by a
virgin- soil epidemic.
(D) They did not come into frequent contact with white
Americans until the twentieth century.
(E) They had been inoculated against measles.
7. The author mentions the 1952 measles outbreak most
probably in order to
(A) demonstrate the impact of modern medicine on
(B) corroborate the documentary evidence of epidemic
disease in colonial America
(C) refute allegations of unreliability made against the
historical record of colonial America
(D) advocate new research into the continuing problem
of epidemic disease
(E) challenge assumptions about how the statistical
evidence of epidemics should be interpreted
8. Which of the following, if newly discovered, would
most seriously weaken the author’s argument
concerning the importance of virgin-soil epidemics in
the depopulation of Native Americans?
(A) Evidence setting the pre-Columbian population of
the New World at only 80 million
(B) Spanish tribute records showing periodic population
(C) Documents detailing sophisticated Native American
(D) Fossils indicating Native American cortact with
smallpox prior to 1492
(E) Remains of French settlements dating back to the
Until recently most astronomers believed that the
space between the galaxies in our universe was a near-
perfect vacuum. This orthodox view of the universe is
now being challenged by astronomers who believe that a
(5) heavy “rain” of gas is falling into many galaxies from
the supposedly empty space around them. The gas
apparently condenses into a collection of small stars,
each a little larger than the planet Jupiter. These stars
vastly outnumber the other stars in a given galaxy. The
(10) amount of “intergalactic rainfall” into some of these
galaxies has been enough to double their mass in the
time since they formed. Scientists have begun to suspect
that this intergalactic gas is probably a mixture of gases
left over from the “big bang” when the galaxies were
(15) formed and gas was forced out of galaxies by supernova
It is well known that when gas is cooled at a constant
pressure its volume decreases. Thus, the physicist Fabian
reasoned that as intergalactic gas cools, the cooler gas
(20) shrinks inward toward the center of the galaxy. Mean-
while its place is taken by hotter intergalactic gas from
farther out on the edge of the galaxy, which cools as it is
compressed and flows into the galaxy. The net result is a
continuous flow of gas, starting as hot gases in inter-
(25) galactic space and ending as a drizzle of cool gas called a
“cooling flow,” falling into the central galaxy.
A fairly heretical idea in the 1970’s, the cooling-flow
theory gained support when Fabian observed a cluster
of galaxies in the constellation Perseus and found the
(30) central galaxy, NGC 1275, to be a strange-looking object
with irregular, thin strands of gas radiating from it.
According to previous speculation, these strands were
gases that had been blown out by an explosion in the
galaxy. Fabian, however, disagreed. Because the strands
(35) of gas radiating from NGC 1275 are visible in optical
photographs, Fabian suggested that such strands consisted
not of gas blown out of the galaxy but of cooling flows
of gas streaming inward. He noted that the wavelengths
of the radiation emitted by a gas would changes as the
(40) gas cooled, so that as the gas flowed into the galaxy and
became cooler, it would emit not x-rays, but visible light,
like that which was captured in the photographs. Fabian’s
hypothesis was supported by Canizares’ determination in
1982 that most of the gas in the Perseus cluster was at a
(45) temperature of 80 million degrees Kelvin, whereas the
gas immediately surrounding NGC 1275 (the subject of
the photographs) was at one-tenth this temperature.
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) illustrate a hypothesis about the origin of galaxies
(B) provide evidence to dispute an accepted theory
about the evolution of galaxies
(C) summarize the state of and prospects for research in
(D) report new data on the origins of intergalactic gas
(E) reconcile opposing views on the formation of
2. The author uses the phrase “orthodox view of the
universe” (line 3) to refer to the belief that
(A) the space between the galaxies is devoid of matter
(B) the space between galaxies is occupied by stars that
cannot be detected by optical photographs
(C) galaxies have decreased in mass by half since their
(D) galaxies contain stars, each the size of Jupiter, which
(E) galaxies are being penetrated by gas forced out of
other galaxies by supernova explosions.
3. It can be inferred from the passage that, if Fabian is
correct, gas in the peripheral regions of a galaxy cluster
(A) streams outward into intergalactic space
(B) is hotter than gas in the central regions of the galaxy
(C) is composed primarily of gas left over from the big
(D) results in the creation of unusually large stars
(E) expands to increase the size of the galaxy
4. The author of the passage probably mentions Canizares’
determination in order to
(A) clarify an ambiguity in Fabian’s research findings
(B) illustrate a generalization about the temperature of
gas in a galaxy cluster
(C) introduce a new argument in support of the orthodox
view of galaxies
(D) provide support for Fabian’s assertions about the
(E) provide an alternate point of view concerning the
movement of gas within a galaxy cluster
5. According to the passage, Fabian believes that gas
flowing into a central galaxy has which of the following
(A) It is one-tenth hotter than it was in the outer regions
of the galaxy cluster.
(B) It emits radiation with wavelengths that change as
the gas moves toward the center of the galaxy.
(C) The total amount of radiation emitted diminishes as
the gas cools.
(D) It loses 90 percent of its energy as it moves to the
center of the galaxy.
(E) It condenses at a rate much slower than the rate of
decrease in temperature as the gas flows inward.
6. According to the passage, Fabian’s theory makes use of
which of the following principles?
(A) Gas emanating from an explosion will be hotter the
more distant it is from the origin.
(B) The wavelength of radiation emitted by a gas as it
cools remains constant.
(C) If pressure remains constant, the volume of a gas
will decrease as it is cooled.
(D) The volume of a gas will increase as the pressure
(E) As gas cools, its density decreases.
7. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
following is true of Fabian’s theory?
(A) It did not receive approval until Canizares’ work
(B) It was not widely accepted in the 1970’s.
(C) It did not receive support initially because
technology was not available to confirm its tenets.
(D) It supports earlier speculation that intergalactic gas
was largely the result of explosions outside the
(E) It was widely challenged until x-ray evidence of gas
temperatures in NGC 1275 had been presented.
Kazuko Nakane’s history of the early Japanese immi-
grants to central California’s Pajaro Valley focuses on
the development of farming communities there from
1890 to 1940. The Issei (first-generation immigrants)
(5) were brought into the Pajaro Valley to raise sugar beets.
Like Issei laborers in American cities, Japanese men in
rural areas sought employment via the “boss” system.
The system comprised three elements: immigrant wage
laborers; Issei boardinghouses where laborers stayed;
(10) and labor contractors, who gathered workers for a
particular job and then negotiated a contract between
workers and employer. This same system was originally
utilized by the Chinese laborers who had preceded the
Japanese. A related institution was the “labor club,”
(15)which provided job information and negotiated employ-
ment contracts and other legal matters, such as the
rental of land, for Issei who chose to belong and paid an
annual fee to the cooperative for membership.
When the local sugar beet industry collapsed in 1902,
(20) the Issei began to lease land from the valley’s strawberry
farmers. The Japanese provided the labor and the crop
was divided between laborers and landowners. The Issei
began to operate farms, they began to marry and start
families, forming an established Japanese American
(30) community. Unfortunately, the Issei’s efforts to attain
agricultural independence were hampered by govern-
ment restrictions, such as the Alien Land Law of 1913.
But immigrants could circumvent such exclusionary laws
by leasing or purchasing land in their American-born
(35) children’s names.
Nakane’s case study of one rural Japanese American
community provides valuable information about the
lives and experiences of the Isseil. It is, however, too
particularistic. This limitation derives from Nakane’s
(40) methodology—that of oral history—which cannot
substitute for a broader theoretical or comparative
perspective. Furture research might well consider two
issues raised by her study: were the Issei of the Pajaro
Valley similar to or different from Issei in urban settings,
(45) and what variations existed between rural Japanese
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) defend a controversial hypothesis presented in a
history of early Japanese immigrants to Califronia
(B) dismiss a history of an early Japanese settlement in
California as narrow and ill constructed
(C) summarize and critique a history of an early
Japanese settlement in California
(D) compare a history of one Japanese American
community with studies of Japanese settlements
(E) examine the differences between Japanese and
Chinese immigrants to central California in the
2. Which of the following best describes a “labor club,” as
defined in the passage?
(A) An organization to which Issei were compelled to
belong if they sought employment in the Pajaro
(B) An association whose members included labor
contractors and landowning “bosses”
(C) A type of farming corporation set up by Issei who
had resided in the Pajaro Valley for some time
(D) A cooperative association whose members were
dues-paying Japanese laborers
(E) A social organization to which Japanese laborers and
their families belonged
3. Based on information in the passage, which of the
following statements concerning the Alien Land Law of
1913 is most accurate?
(A) It excluded American-born citizens of Japanese
ancestry from landownership.
(B) It sought to restrict the number of foreign
immigrants to California.
(C) It successfully prevented Issei from ever purchasing
(D) It was applicable to first-generation immigrants but
not to their American-born children.
(E) It was passed under pressure from the Pajaro
Valley’s strawberry farmers.
4. Several Issei families join together to purchase a
strawberry field and the necessary farming equipment.
Such a situation best exemplifies which of the
following, as it is described in the passage?
(A) A typical sharecropping agreement
(B) A farming corporation
(C) A “labor club”
(D) The “boss” system
(E) Circumvention of the Alien Land Law
5. The passage suggests that which of the following was an
indirect consequence of the collapse of the sugar beet
industry in the Pajaro Valley?
(A) The Issei formed a permanent, family-based
(B) Boardinghouses were built to accommodate the
(C) The Issei began to lease land in their children’s
(D) The Issei adopted a labor contract system similar to
used by Chinese immigrants.
(E) The Issei suffered a massive dislocation caused by
6. The author of the passage would most likely agree that
which of the following, if it had been included in
Nakane’s study, would best remedy the particularistic
nature of that study?
(A) A statistical table comparing per capita income of
Issei wage laborers and sharecroppers in the Pajaro
(B) A statistical table showing per capita income of
Issei in the Pajaro Valley from 1890 to 1940
(C) A statistical table showing rates of farm ownership
by Japanese Americans in four central California
counties from 1890 to 1940
(D) A discussion of original company documents
dealing with the Pajaro Valley sugar beet industry at
the turn of the century
(E) Transcripts of interviews conducted with members
of the Pajaro Valley Japanese American community
who were born in the 1920’s and 1930’s.
7. It can be inferred from the passage that, when the Issei
began to lease land from the Valley’s strawberry
farmers, the Issei most probably did which of the
(A) They used profits made from selling the strawberry
crop to hire other Issei.
(B) They negotiated such agricultural contracts using the
(C) They paid for the use of the land with a share of the
(D) They earned higher wages than when they raised
(E) They violated the Alien Land Law.
It can be argued that much consumer dissatisfaction
with marketing strategies arises from an inability to aim
advertising at only the likely buyers of a given product.
There are three groups of consumers who are affected
(5) by the marketing process. First, there is the market
segment—people who need the commodity in question.
Second, there is the program target—people in the
market segment with the “best fit” characteristics for a
specific product. Lots of people may need trousers, but
(10) only a few qualify as likely buyers of very expensive
designer trousers. Finally, there is the program audience
―all people who are actually exposed to the
marketing program without regard to whether they need
or want the product.
(15) These three groups are rarely identical. An exception
occurs occasionally in cases where customers for a
particular industrial product may be few and easily iden-
tifiable. Such customers, all sharing a particular need,
are likely to form a meaningful target, for example, all
(20) companies with a particular application of the product
in question, such as high-speed fillers of bottles at brew-
eries. In such circumstances, direct selling (marketing that
reaches only the program target) is likely to be
economically justified, and highly specialized trade
(25) media exist to expose members of the program target—
and only members of the program target—to the
Most consumer-goods markets are significantly
different. Typically, there are many rather than few
(30) potential customers. Each represents a relatively small
percentage of potential sales. Rarely do members of a
particular market segment group themselves neatly into
a meaningful program target. There are substantial
differences among consumers with similar demographic
(35) characteristics. Even with all the past decade’s advances
in information technology, direct selling of consumer
goods is rare, and mass marketing—a marketing
approach that aims at a wide audience—remains the
only economically feasible mode. Unfortunately, there
(40) are few media that allow the marketer to direct a
marketing program exclusively to the program target.
Inevitably, people get exposed to a great deal of
marketing for products in which they have no interest
and so they become annoyed.
1. The passage suggests which of the following about
highly specialized trade media?
(A) They should be used only when direct selling is not
(B) They can be used to exclude from the program
audience people who are not part of the program
(C) They are used only for very expensive products.
(D) They are rarely used in the implementation of
marketing programs for industrial products.
(E) They are used only when direct selling has not
reached the appropriate market segment.
2. According to the passage, most consumer-goods
markets share which of the following characteristics?
Ⅰ. Customers who differ significantly from each other
Ⅱ. Large numbers of potential customers
Ⅲ. Customers who each represent a small percentage of
(A) Ⅰ only
(B) Ⅱ only
(C) Ⅰ and Ⅱ only
(D) Ⅱ and Ⅲ only
(E) Ⅰ,Ⅱ, and Ⅲ
3. The passage suggests which of the following about
(A) It is used in the marketing of most industrial
(B) It is often used in cases where there is a large
(C) It is not economically feasible for most marketing
(D) It is used only for products for which there are many
(E) It is less successful at directing a marketing program
to the target audience than are other marketing
4. The author mentions “trousers” (lines 9 and 11) most
likely in order to
(A) make a comparison between the program target and
the program audience
(B) emphasize the similarities between the market
segment and the program target
(C) provide an example of the way three groups of
consumers are affected by a marketing program
(D) clarify the distinction between the market segment
and the program target
(E) introduce the concept of the program audience
5. Which of the following best exemplifies the situation
described in the last two sentences of the passage?
(A) A product suitable for women age 21-30 is marketed
at meetings attended only by potential customers.
(B) A company develops a new product and must
develop an advertising campaign to create a market
(C) An idea for a specialized product remains
unexplored because media exposure of the product
to its few potential customers would be too
(D) A new product is developed and marketers collect
demographic data on potential consumers before
developing a specific advertising campaign.
(E) A product suitable for men age 60 and over is
advertised in a magazine read by adults of all ages.
6. The passage suggests that which of the following is true
about the marketing of industrial products like those
discussed in the third paragraph?
(A) The market segment and program target are
(B) Mass marketing is the only feasible way of
advertising such products.
(C) The marketing program cannot be directed
specifically to the program target.
(D) More customers would be needed to justify the
expense of direct selling.
(E) The program audience would necessarily be made
up of potential customers, regardless of the
marketing approach that was used.
7. The passage supports which of the following statements
about demographic characteristics and marketing?
(A) Demographic research is of no use in determining
how successful a product will be with a particular
group of consumers.
(B) A program audience is usually composed of people
with similar demographic characteristics.
(C) Psychological factors are more important than
demographic factors in defining a market segments.
(D) Consumers with similar demographic characteristics
do not necessarily form a meaningful program
(E) Collecting demographic data is the first step that
marketers take in designing a marketing program.
8. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
following is true for most consumer-goods markets?
(A) The program audience is smaller than the market
(B) The program audience and the market segment are
(C) The market segment and the program target are
(D) The program target is larger than the market
(E) The program target and the program audience are
not usually identical.
Protein synthesis begins when the gene encoding a
protein is activated. The gene’s sequence of nucleotides is
transcribed into a molecule of messenger RNA (mRNA),
which reproduces the information contained in that
(5) sequence. Transported outside the nucleus to the cyto-
plasm, the mRNA is translated into the protein it
encodes by an organelle known as a ribosome, which
strings together amino acids in the order specified by the
sequence of elements in the mRNA molecule. Since the
(10) amount of mRNA in a cell determines the amount of the
corresponding protein, factors affecting the abundance
of mRNA’s play a major part in the normal functioning
of a cell by appropriately regulating protein synthesis.
For example, an excess of certain proteins can cause cells
(15) to proliferate abnormally and become cancerous; a lack
of the protein insulin results in diabetes.
Biologists once assumed that the variable rates at
which cells synthesize different mRNA’s determine the
quantities of mRNA’s and their corresponding proteins
(20) in a cell. However, recent investigations have shown that
the concentrations of most mRNA’s correlate best, not
with their synthesis rate, but rather with the equally vari-
able rates at which cells degrade the different mRNA’s
in their cytoplasm. If a cell degrades both a rapidly and
(25) a slowly synthesized mRNA slowly, both mRNA’s will
accumulate to high levels.
An important example of this phenomenon is the
development of red blood cells from their unspecialized
parent cells in bone marrow. For red blood cells to accu-
(30) mulate sufficient concentrations of hemoglobin (which
transports oxygen) to carry out their main function, the
cells’ parent cells must simultaneously produce more of
the constituent proteins of hemoglobin and less of most
other proteins. To do this, the parent cells halt synthesis
(35) of nonhemoglobin mRNA’s in the nucleus and rapidly
degrade copies of the nonhemoglobin mRNA’s remaining
in the cytoplasm. Halting synthesis of mRNA alone would
not affect the quantities of proteins synthesized by the
mRNA’s still existing in the cytoplasm. Biologists now
(40) believe that most cells can regulate protein production
most efficiently by varying both mRNA synthesis and
degradation, as developing red cells do, rather than by
just varying one or the other.
1. The passage is primarily concerned with discussing the
(A) influence of mRNA concentrations on the
development of red blood cells
(B) role of the synthesis and degradation of mRNA in
(C) mechanism by which genes are transcribed into
(D) differences in mRNA concentrations in cell nuclei
and in the cytoplasm
(E) way in which mRNA synthesis contributes to the
onset of diabetes
2. The passage suggests that a biologist who held the view
described in the first sentence of the second paragraph
would most probably also have believed which of the
(A) The rate of degradation of specific mRNA’s has
little effect on protein concentrations.
(B) The rate of degradation of specific mRNA’s should
be studied intensively.
(C) The rates of synthesis and degradation for any given
mRNA are normally equal.
(D) Different mRNA’s undergo degradation at widely
(E) Most mRNA’s degrade very rpaidly.
3. Which of the following best describes the relationship
between the second and third paragraphs of the passage?
(A) The second paragraph presents arguments in support
of a new theory and the third paragraph presents
arguments against that same theory.
(B) The second paragraph describes a traditional view
and the third paragraph describes the view that has
replaced it on the basis of recent investigations.
(C) The third paragraph describes a specific case of a
phenomenon that is described generally in the
(D) The third paragraph describes an investigation that
was undertaken to resolve problems raised by
phenomena described in the second paragraph.
(E) Both paragraphs describe in detail specific examples
of the phenomenon that is introduced in the first
4. The accumulation of concentrations of hemoglobin in
red blood cells is mentioned in the passage as an
example of which of the following?
(A) The effectiveness of simultaneous variation of the
rates of synthesis and degradation of mRNA
(B) The role of the ribosome in enabling a parent cell to
develop properly into a more specialized form
(C) The importance of activating the genes for particular
proteins at the correct moment
(D) The abnormal proliferation of a protein that
threatens to make the cell cancerous
(E) The kind of evidence that biologists relied on for
support of a view of mRNA synthesis that is now
5. To begin to control a disease caused by a protein
deficiency, the passage suggests that a promising
experimental treatment would be to administer a drug
that would reduce
(A) only the degradation rate for the mRNA of the
(B) only the synthesis rate for the mRNA of the protein
(C) both the synthesis and degradation rates for the
mRNA of the protein involved
(D) the incidence of errors in the transcription of
mRNA’s from genetic nucleotide sequences
(E) the rate of activity of ribosomes in the cytoplasm of
6. According to the passage, which of the following best
describes the current view on the relationship between
the synthesis and the degradation of mRNA in
regulating protein synthesis?
(A) Biologists have recently become convinced that the
ribosome controls the rates of synthesis and
degradation of mRNA.
(B) There is no consensus among biologists as to the
significance of mRNA degradation in regulating
(C) The concept of mRNA degradation is so new that
most biologists still believe that the vital role in
protein regulation belongs to mRNA synthesis.
(D) Degradation of mRNA is now considered to be the
key process and mRNA synthesis is no longer
believed to play a significant role.
(E) Degradation of mRNA is now considered to be as
important as mRNA synthesis has been, and still is,
believed to be.
7. According to the passage, which of the following can
happen when protein synthesis is not appropriately
(A) Diabetes can result from errors that occur when the
ribosomes translate mRNA into protein.
(B) Cancer can result from an excess of certain proteins
and diabetes can result from an insulin deficiency.
(C) A deficiency of red blood cells can occur if bone
marrow cells produce too much hemoglobin.
(D) Cancer can be caused by excessively rapid
degradation of certain amino acids in the cytoplasm
(E) Excessive synthesis of one protein can trigger
increased degradation of mRNA’s for other proteins
and create severe protein imbalances.
8. The passage suggests that a biologist who detected high
levels of two proteins in a certain type of cell would be
likely to consider which of the following as a possible
(A) The rate of mRNA degradation for one of the
proteins increases as this type of cell develops a
more specialized function.
(B) The two proteins are most likely constituents of a
complex substance supporting the cells’ specialized
(C) The cells are likely to proliferate abnormally and
possibly become cancerous due to the levels of these
(D) The mRNA’s for both proteins are being degraded
at a low rate in that type of cell.
(E) The mRNA’s for the two proteins are being
synthesized at identical rates in that type of cell.
Japanese firms have achieved the highest levels of
manufacturing efficiency in the world automobile
industry. Some observers of Japan have assumed that
Japanese firms use the same manufacturing equipment
(5) and techniques as United States firms but have bene-
fited from the unique characteristics of Japanese
employees and the Japanese culture. However, if this
were true, then one would expect Japanese auto plants
in the United States to perform no better than factories
(10) run by United States companies. This is not the case,
Japanese-run automobile plants located in the United
States and staffed by local workers have demonstrated
higher levels of productivity when compared with facto-
ries owned by United States companies.
(15) Other observers link high Japanese productivity to
higher levels of capital investment per worker. But a
historical perspective leads to a different conclusion.
When the two top Japanese automobile makers
matched and then doubled United States productivity
(20) levels in the mid-sixties, capital investment per
employee was comparable to that of United States
firms. Furthermore, by the late seventies, the amount of
fixed assets required to produce one vehicle was
roughly equivalent in Japan and in the United States.
(25) Since capital investment was not higher in Japan, it had
to be other factors that led to higher productivity.
A more fruitful explanation may lie with Japanese
production techniques. Japanese automobile producers
did not simply implement conventional processes more
(30) effectively: they made critical changes in United States
procedures. For instance, the mass-production philos-
ophy of United States automakers encouraged the
production of huge lots of cars in order to utilize fully
expensive, component-specific equipment and to
(35) occupy fully workers who have been trained to execute
one operation efficiently. Japanese automakers chose to
make small-lot production feasible by introducing
several departures from United States practices,
including the use of flexible equipment that could be
(40) altered easily to do several different production tasks
and the training of workers in multiple jobs.
Automakers could schedule the production of different
components or models on single machines, thereby
eliminating the need to store the buffer stocks of extra
(45) components that result when specialized equipment
and workers are kept constantly active.
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) present the major steps of a process
(B) clarify an ambiguity
(C) chronicle a dispute
(D) correct misconceptions
(E) defend an accepted approach
2. The author suggests that if the observers of Japan
mentioned in line 3 were correct, which of the following
would be the case?
(A) The equipment used in Japanese automobile plants
would be different from the equipment used in
United States plants.
(B) Japanese workers would be trained to do several
different production jobs.
(C) Culture would not have an influence on the
productivity levels of workers.
(D) The workers in Japanese-run plants would have
higher productivity levels regardless of where they
(E) The production levels of Japanese-run plants located
in the United States would be equal to those of
plants run by United States companies.
3. Which of the following statements concerning the
productivity levels of automakers can be inferred from
(A) Prior to the 1960’s, the productivity levels of the top
Japanese automakers were exceeded by those of
United States automakers.
(B) The culture of a country has a large effect on the
productivity levels of its automakers.
(C) During the late 1970’s and early 1980’s,
productivity levels were comparable in Japan and
the United States.
(D) The greater the number of cars that are produced in
a single lot, the higher a plant’s productivity level.
(E) The amount of capital investment made by
automobile manufacturers in their factories
determines the level of productivity.
4. According to the passage, which of the following
statements is true of Japanese automobile workers?
(A) Their productivity levels did not equal those of
United States automobile workers until the late
(B) Their high efficiency levels are a direct result of
(C) They operate component-specific machinery.
(D) They are trained to do more than one job.
(E) They produce larger lots of cars than do workers in
United States factories.
5. Which of the following best describes the organization
of the first paragraph?
(A) A thesis is presented and supporting examples are
(B) Opposing views are presented, classified, and then
(C) A fact is stated, and an explanation is advanced and
(D) A theory is proposed, considered, and then
(E) An opinion is presented, qualified, and then
6. It can be inferred from the passage that one problem
associated with the production of huge lots of cars is
which of the following?
(A) The need to manufacture flexible machinery and
(B) The need to store extra components not required for
(C) The need for expensive training programs for
workers, which emphasize the development of
facility in several production jobs.
(D) The need to alter conventional mass-production
(E) The need to increase the investment per vehicle in
order to achieve high productivity levels
7. Which of the following statements is supported by
information stated in the passage?
(A) Japanese and United States automakers differ in
their approach to production processes.
(B) Japanese automakers have perfected the use of
(C) Japanese automakers invest more capital per
employee than do United States automakers.
(D) United States-owned factories abroad have higher
production levels than do Japanese owned plants in
the United States.
(E) Japanese automakers have benefited from the
cultural heritage of their workers.
8. With which of the following predictive statement
regarding Japanese automakers would the author
most likely agree?
(A) The efficiency levels of the Japanese automakers
will decline if they become less flexible in their
approach to production
(B) Japanese automakers productivity levels double
during the late 1990’s.
(C) United States automakes will originate net
production processes before Japanese automakers
(D) Japanese automakers will hire fewer workers than
will United States automakers because each worker
is required to perform several jobs.
(E) Japanese automakers will spend less on equipment
repairs than will United States automakers because
Japanese equipment can be easily altered.
It was once believed that the brain was independent
of metabolic processes occurring elsewhere in the body.
In recent studies, however, we have discovered that the
production and release in brain neurons of the neuro-
(5) transmitter serotonin (neurotransmitters are compounds
that neurons use to transmit signals to other cells)
depend directly on the food that the body processes.
Our first studies sought to determine whether the
increase in serotonin observed in rats given a large injec-
(10)tion of the amino acid tryptophan might also occur after
rats ate meals that change tryptophan levels in the
blood. We found that, immediately after the rats began
to eat, parallel elevations occurred in blood tryptophan,
brain tryptophan, and brain serotonin levels. These find-
(15) ings suggested that the production and release of sero-
tonin in brain neurons were normally coupled with
blood-tryptophan increases. In later studies we found
that injecting insulin into a rat’s bloodstream also caused
parallel elevations in blood and brain tryptophan levels
(20) and in serotonin levels. We then decided to see whether
the secretion of the animal’s own insulin similarly affected
serotonin production. We gave the rats a carbohydrate-
containing meal that we knew would elicit insulin secre-
tion. As we had hypothesized, the blood tryptophan
(25) level and the concentrations of tryptophan
serotonin in the brain increased after the meal.
Surprisingly, however, when we added a large
amount of protein to the meal, brain tryptophan and
serotonin levels fell. Since protein contains tryptophan,
(30) why should it depress brain tryptophan levels? The
answer lies in the mechanism that provides blood tryp-
tophan to the brain cells. This same mechanism also
provides the brain cells with other amino acids found in
protein, such as tyrosine and leucine. The consumption
(35) of protein increases blood concentration of the other
amino acids much more, proportionately, than it does
that of tryptophan. The more protein in the meal, the
lower is the ratio of the resulting blood-tryptophan
concentration to the concentration of competing amino
(40) acids, and the more slowly is tryptophan provided to
the brain. Thus the more protein in a meal, the less
serotonin subsequently produced and released.
1. Which of the following titles best summarizes the
contents of the passage?
(A) Neurotransmitters: Their Crucial Function in
(B) Diet and Survival: An Old Relationship Reexamined
(C) The Blood Supply and the Brain: A Reciprocal
(D) Amino Acids and Neurotransmitters: The
Connection Between Serotonin Levels and Tyrosine
(E) The Effects of Food Intake on the Production and
Release of Serotonin: Some Recent Findings
2. According to the passage, the speed with which
tryptophan is provided to the brain cells of a rat varies
(A) amount of protein present in a meal
(B) concentration of serotonin in the brain before a meal
(C) concentration of leucine in the blood rather than on
the concentration of tyrosine in the blood after a
(D) concentration of tryptophan in the brain before a
(E) number of serotonin-containing neurons present in
the brain before a meal
3. According to the passage, when the authors began their
first studies, they were aware that
(A) they would eventually need to design experiments
that involved feeding rats high concentrations of
(B) tryptophan levels in the blood were difficult to
monitor with accuracy
(C) serotonin levels increased after rats were fed meals
rich in tryptophan
(D) there were many neurotransmitters whose
production was dependent on metabolic processes
elsewhere in the body.
(E) serotonin levels increased after rats were injected
with a large amount of tryptophan
4. According to the passage, one reason that the authors
gave rats carbohydrates was to
(A) depress the rats’ tryptophan levels
(B) prevent the rats from contracting diseases
(C) cause the rats to produce insulin
(D) demonstrate that insulin is the most important
substance secreted by the body
(E) compare the effect of carbohydrates with the effect
5. According to the passage, the more protein a rat
consumes, the lower will be the
(A) ratio of the rat’s blood-tryptophan concentration to
the amount of serotonin produced and released in the
(B) ratio of the rat’s blood-tryptophan concentration to
the concentration in its blood of the other amino
acids contained in the protein
(C) ratio of the rat’s blood-tyrosine concentration to its
(D) number of neurotransmitters of any kind that the rat
will produce and release
(E) number of amino acids the rat’s blood will contain
6. The authors’ discussion of the “mechanism that provides
blood tryptophan to the brain cells” (lines 31-32) is
(A) stimulate further research studies
(B) summarize an area of scientific investigation
(C) help explain why a particular research finding was
(D) provide supporting evidence for a controversial
(E) refute the conclusions of a previously mentioned
7. According to the passage, an injection of insulin was
most similar in its effect on rats to an injection of
8. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
following would be LEAST likely to be a potential
source of aid to a patient who was not adequately
producing and releasing serotonin?
(A) Meals consisting almost exclusively of protein
(B) Meals consisting almost exclusively of
(C) Meals that would elicit insulin secretion
(D) Meals that had very low concentrations of tyrosine
(E) Meals that had very low concentrations of leucine
9. It can be inferred from the passage that the authors
initially held which of the following hypotheses about
what would happen when they fed large amounts of
protein to rats?
(A) The rats’ brain serotonin levels would not decrease.
(B) The rats’ brain tryptophan levels would decrease
(C) The rats’ tyrosine levels would increase less quickly
than would their leucine levels
(D) The rats would produce more insulin.
(E) The rats would produce neurotransmitters other than
Historians sometimes forget that history is conunu-
ally being made and experienced before it is studied,
interpreted, and read. These latter activities have their
own history, of course, which may impinge in unex-
(5) pected ways on public events. It is difficult to predict
when “new pasts” will overturn established historical
interpretations and change the course of history.
In the fall of 1954, for example, C. Vann Woodward
delivered a lecture series at the University of Virginia
(10) which challenged the prevailling dogma concerning the
history, continuity, and uniformity of racial segregation
in the South. He argued that the Jim Crow laws of the
late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries not only
codified traditional practice but also were a determined
(15) effort to erase the considerable progress made by Black
people during and after Reconstruction in the 1870’s.
This revisionist view of Jim Crow legislation grew in
Part from the research that Woodward had done for the
NAACP legal campaign during its preparation for
(20) Brown v. Board of Education. The Supreme Court had
issued its ruling in this epochal desegregation case a few
months before Woodward’s lectures.
The lectures were soon published as a book. The
Strange Career of Jim Crow. Ten years later, in a
(25) preface to the second revised edition. Woodward
confessed with ironic modesty that the first edition
“had begun to suffer under some of the handicaps that
might be expected in a history of the American Revolu-
tion published in 1776.” That was a bit like hearing
(30)Thomas Paine apologize for the timing of his pamphlet
Common Sense, which had a comparable impact.
Although Common Sense also had a mass readership.
Paine had intended to reach and inspire: he was not a
historian, and thus not concerned with accuracy or the
(35) dangers of historical anachronism. Yet, like Paine,
Woodward had an unerring sense of the revolutionary
moment, and of how historical evidence could under-
mine the mythological tradition that was crushing the
dreams of new social possibilities. Martin Luther King,
(40) Jr.. testified to the profound effect of The Strange
Career of Jim Crow on the civil rights movement by
praising the book and quoting it frequently.
1. The “new pasts” mentioned in line 6 can best be
described as the
(A) occurrence of events extremely similar to past
(B) history of the activities of studying, interpreting, and
reading new historical writing
(C) change in people’s understanding of the past due to
more recent historical writing
(D) overturning of established historical interpretations
by politically motivated politicians
(E) difficulty of predicting when a given historical
interpretation will be overturned
2. It can be inferred from the passage that the “prevailling
dogma” (line 10) held that
(A) Jim Crow laws were passed to give legal status to
well-established discriminatory practices in the
(B) Jim Crow laws were passed to establish order and
uniformity in the discriminatory practices of
different southern states.
(C) Jim Crow laws were passed to erase the social gains
that Black people had achieved since Reconstruction
(D) the continuity of racial segregation in the South was
disrupted by passage of Jim Crow laws
(E) the Jim Crow laws of the late nineteenth and early
twentieth centuries were passed to reverse the effect
of earlier Jim Crow laws
3. Which of the following is the best example of writing
that is likely to be subject to the kinds of “handicaps”
referred to in line 27?
(A) A history of an auto manufacturing plant written by an employee during an autobuying boom
(B) A critique of a statewide school-desegregation plan
written by an elementary school teacher in that state
(C) A newspaper article assessing the historical
importance of a United States President written
shortly after the President has taken office
(D) A scientific paper describing the benefits of a
certain surgical technique written by the surgeon
who developed the technique
(E) Diary entries narrating the events of a battle written
by a soldier who participated in the battle
4. The passage suggests that C. Vann Woodward and
Thomas Paine were similar in all of the following ways
(A) Both had works published in the midst of important
(B) Both wrote works that enjoyed widespread
(C) Both exhibited an understanding of the relevance of
historical evidence to contemporary issues.
(D) The works of both had a significant effect on events
following their publication.
(E) Both were able to set aside worries about historical
anachronism in order to reach and inspire.
5. The attitude of the author of the passage toward the
work of C. Vann Woodward is best described as one of
(A) respectful regard
(B) qualified approbation
(C) implied skepticism
(D) pointed criticism
(E) fervent advocacy
6. Which of the following best describes the new idea
expressed by C. Vann Woodward in his University of
Virginia lectures in 1954?
(A) Southern racial segregation was continuous and
(B) Black people made considerable progress only after
(C) Jim Crow legislation was conventional in nature.
(D) Jim Crow laws did not go as far in codifying
traditional practice as they might have.
(E) Jim Crow laws did much more than merely reinforce
a tradition of segregation.
Joseph Glarthaar’s Forged in Battle is not the first excel-
lent study of Black soldiers and their White officers in the
Civil War, but it uses more soldiers’ letters and diaries—
including rare material from Black soldiers—and concen-
(5) rates more intensely on Black-White relations in Black
regiments than do any of its predecessors. Glathaar’s title
expresses his thesis: loyalty, friendship, and respect among
White officers and Black soldiers were fostered by the
mutual dangers they faced in combat.
(10 ) Glarthaar accurately describes the government’s discrim-
inatory treatment of Black soldiers in pay, promotion, medi
cal care, and job assignments, appropriately emphasizing
the campaign by Black soldiers and their officers to get the
opportunity to fight. That chance remained limited through
(15) out the war by army policies that kept most Black units
serving in rear-echelon assignments and working in labor
battalions. Thus, while their combat death rate was only
one-third that of White units, their mortality rate from
disease, a major killer in his war, was twice as great.
(20) Despite these obstacles, the courage and effectiveness of
several Black units in combat won increasing respect from
initially skeptical or hostile White soldiers. As one White
officer put it, “they have fought their way into the respect
of all the army.”
(25) In trying to demonstrate the magnitude of this attitudi-
nal change, however, Glarthaar seems to exaggerate the
prewar racism of the White men who became officers in
Black regiments. “Prior to the war,” he writes of these
men, “virtually all of them held powerful racial prejudices.”
(30) While perhaps true of those officers who joined Black
units for promotion or other self-serving motives, this state-
ment misrepresents the attitudes of the many abolitionists
who became officers in Black regiments. Having spent
years fighting against the race prejudice endemic in Ameri-
(35) can society; they participated eagerly in this military exper-
iment, which they hoped would help African Americans
achieve freedom and postwar civil equality. By current
standards of racial egalitarianism, these men’s paternalism
toward African Americans was racist. But to call their
(40) feelings “powerful racial prejudices” is to indulge in
generational chauvinism—to judge past eras by present
1. The passage as a whole can best be characterized as which of
(A) An evaluation of a scholarly study
(B) A description of an attitudinal change
(C) A discussion of an analytical defect
(D) An analysis of the causes of a phenomenon
(E) An argument in favor of revising a view
2. According to the author, which of the following is true of
Glarthaar’s Forged in Battle compared with previous studies
on the same topic?
(A) It is more reliable and presents a more complete picture
of the historical events on which it concentrates than do
(B) It uses more of a particular kind of source material and
focuses more closely on a particular aspect of the topic
than do previous studies.
(C) It contains some unsupported generalizations, but it
rightly emphasizes a theme ignored by most previous
(D) It surpasses previous studies on the same topic in that it
accurately describes conditions often neglected by those
(E) It makes skillful use of supporting evidence to illustrate a
subtle trend that previous studies have failed to detect.
3. The author implies that the title of Glatthaar’s book refers
specifically to which of the following?
(A) The sense of pride and accomplishment that Black
soldiers increasingly felt as a result of their Civil War
(B) The civil equality that African Americans achieved after
the Civil War, partly as a result of their use of
organizational skills honed by combat
(C) The changes in discriminatory army policies that were
made as a direct result of the performance of Black
combat units during the Civil War
(D) The improved interracial relations that were formed by
the races’ facing of common dangers and their waging
of a common fight during the Civil War
(E) The standards of racial egalitarianism that came to be
adopted as a result of White Civil War veterans’
repudiation of the previous racism
4. The passage mentions which of the following as an
important theme that receives special emphasis in
(A) The attitudes of abolitionist officers in Black units
(B) The struggle of Black units to get combat assignments
(C) The consequences of the poor medical care received by
(D) The motives of officers serving in Black units
(E) The discrimination that Black soldiers faced when trying
5. The passage suggests that which of the following was true of
Black units’ disease mortality rates in the Civil War?
(A) They were almost as high as the combat mortality rates
of White units.
(B) They resulted in part from the relative inexperience of
these units when in combat.
(C) They were especially high because of the nature of these
units’ usual duty assignments.
(D) They resulted in extremely high overall casualty rates in
Black combat units.
(E) They exacerbated the morale problems that were caused
by the army’s discriminatory policies.
6. The author of the passage quotes the White officer in lines
23-24 primarily in order to provide evidence to support the
(A) virtually all White officers initially had hostile attitudes
toward Black soldiers
(B) Black soldiers were often forced to defend themselves
from physical attacks initiated by soldiers from White
(C) the combat performance of Black units changed the
attitudes of White soldiers toward Black soldiers
(D) White units paid especially careful attention to the
performance of Black units in battle
(E) respect in the army as a whole was accorded only to
those units, whether Black or White, that performed well
7. Which of the following best describes the kind of error
attributed to Glarthaar in lines 25-28?
(A) Insisting on an unwarranted distinction between two
groups of individuals in order to render an argument
concerning them internally consistent
(B) Supporting an argument in favor of a given interpretation
of a situation with evidence that is not particularly
relevant to the situation
(C) Presenting a distorted view of the motives of certain
individuals in order to provide grounds for a negative
evaluation of their actions
(D) Describing the conditions prevailing before a given
event in such a way that the contrast with those
prevailing after the event appears more striking than it
(E) Asserting that a given event is caused by another event
merely because the other event occurred before the given
8. Which of the following actions can best be described as
indulging in “generational chauvinism” (lines 40-41) as that
practice is defined in the passage?
(A) Condemning a present-day monarch merely because
many monarchs have been tyrannical in the past.
(B) Clinging to the formal standards of politeness common
in one’s youth to such a degree that any relaxation of
those standards is intolerable
(C) Questioning the accuracy of a report written by an
employee merely because of the employee’s gender.
(D) Deriding the superstitions accepted as “science” in past
eras without acknowledging the prevalence of irrational
(E) Labeling a nineteenth-century politician as “corrupt”
for engaging in once-acceptable practices considered
It was once assumed that all living things could be
divided into two fundamental and exhaustive categories. Multicellular plants and animals, as well as many unicellu-
lar organisms, are eukaryotic—their large, complex cells
(5) have a well-formed nucles and many organelles. On the
other hand, the true bacteria are prokaryotic cell, which
are simple and lack a nucleus. The distinction between
eukaryotes and bacteria, initially defined in terms of
subcellular structures visible with a microscope, was ulti-
(10) mately carried to the molecular level. Here prokaryotic and
eukaryotic cells have many features in common. For
instance, they translate genetic information into proteins
according to the same type of genetic coding. But even
where the molecular processes are the same, the details in
(15) the two forms are different and characteristic of the respec-
tive forms. For example, the amino acid sequences of vari-
ous enzymes tend to be typically prokaryotic or eukaryotic.
The differences between the groups and the similarities
within each group made it seem certain to most biologists
(20) that the tree of life had only two stems. Moreover, argu-
ments pointing out the extent of both structural and func-
tional differences between eukaryotes and true bacteria
convinced many biologists that the precursors of the
eukaryotes must have diverged from the common
(25) ancestor before the bacteria arose.
Although much of this picture has been sustained by
more recent research, it seems fundamentally wrong in one
respect. Among the bacteria, there are organisms that are
significantly different both from the cells of eukaryotes and
(30) from the true bacteria, and it now appears that there are
three stems in the tree of life. New techniques for deter-
mining the molecular sequence of the RNA of organisms
have produced evolutionary information about the degree
to which organisms are related, the time since they diverged
(35) from a common ancestor, and the reconstruction of ances-
tral versions of genes. These techniques have strongly
suggested that although the true bacteria indeed form a
large coherent group, certain other bacteria, the archaebac-
teria, which are also prokaryotes and which resemble true
(40) bacteria, represent a distinct evolutionary branch that
far antedates the common ancestor of all true bacteria.
1. The passage is primarily concerned with
(A) detailing the evidence that has led most biologists to
replace the trichotomous picture of living organisms
with a dichotomous one
(B) outlining the factors that have contributed to the
current hypothesis concerning the number of basic
categories of living organisms
(C) evaluating experiments that have resulted in proof
that the prokaryotes are more ancient than had been
(D) summarizing the differences in structure and
function found among true bacteria, archaebacteria,
(E) formulating a hypothesis about the mechanisms of
evolution that resulted in the ancestors of the
2. According to the passage, investigations of eukaryotic
and prokaryotic cells at the molecular level supported
the conclusion that
(A) most eukaryotic organisms are unicellular
(B) complex cells have well-formed nuclei
(C) prokaryotes and cukaryotes form two fundamental
(D) subcellular structures are visible with a microscope
(E) prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have similar
3. According to the passage, which of the following
statements about the two-category hypothesis is likely to
(A) It is promising because it explains the presence of true
bacteria-like organisms such as organelles in
(B) It is promising because it explains why eukaryotic
cells, unlike prokaryotic cells, tend to form
(C) It is flawed because it fails to account for the great
variety among eukaryotic organisms.
(D) It is flawed because it fails to account for the
similarity between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
(E) It is flawed because it fails to recognize an important
distinction among prokaryotes.
4. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
following have recently been compared in order to
clarify the fundamental classifications of living things?
(A) The genetic coding in true bacteria and that in other
(B) The organelle structures of archaebacteria, true
bacteria, and eukaryotes
(C) The cellular structures of multicellular organisms
and unicellular organisms
(D) The molecular sequences in eukaryotic RNA, true
bacterial RNA, and archaebacterial RNA
(E) The amino acid sequences in enzymes of various
eukaryotic species and those of enzymes in
5. If the “new techniques” mentioned in line 31 were
applied in studies of biological classifications other than
bacteria, which of the following is most likely?
(A) Some of those classifications will have to be
(B) Many species of bacteria will be reclassified
(C) It will be determined that there are four main
categories of living things rather than three.
(D) It will be found that true bacteria are much older
(E) It will be found that there is a common ancestor of
the eukaryotes, archaebacteria, and true bacteria.
6. According to the passage, researchers working under the
two-category hypothesis were correct in thinking that
(A) prokaryotes form a coherent group
(B) the common ancestor of all living things had complex
(C) eukaryotes are fundamentally different from true bacteria
(D) true bacteria are just as complex as eukaryotes
(E) ancestral versions of eukaryotic genes functioned
differently from their modern counterparts.
7. All of the following statements are supported by the passage
(A) True bacteria form a distinct evolutionary group.
(B) Archaebacteria are prokaryotes that resemble true
(C) True bacteria and eukaryotes employ similar types of
(D) True bacteria and eukaryotes are distinguishable at the
(E) Amino acid sequences of enzymes are uniform for
eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms.
8. The author’s attitude toward the view that living things are
divided into three categories is best described as one of
(A) tentative acceptance
(B) mild skepticism
(C) limited denial
(D) studious oriticism
(E) whole hearted endorsement
Excess inventory, a massive problem for many busi-
nesses, has several causes, some of which are unavoidable.
Overstocks may accumulate through production overruns or
errors. Certain styles and colors prove unpopular. With
(5) some products—computers and software, toys, and
books—last year’s models are difficult to move even at
huge discounts. Occasionally the competition introduces a
better product. But in many cases the public’s buying tastes
simply change, leaving a manufacturer or distributor with
(10 ) thousands (or millions) of items that the fickle public no
One common way to dispose of this merchandise is to
sell it to a liquidator, who buys as cheaply as possible and
then resells the merchandise through catalogs, discount
(15) stores, and other outlets. However, liquidators may pay less
for the merchandise than it cost to make it. Another way to
dispose of excess inventory is to dump it. The corporation
takes a straight cost write-off on its taxes and hauls the
merchandise to a landfill. Although it is hard to believe,
(20) there is a sort of convoluted logic to this approach. It is
perfectly legal, requires little time or preparation on the
company’s part, and solves the problem quickly. The draw-
back is the remote possibility of getting caught by the news
media. Dumping perfectly useful products can turn into a
(25) public relations nightmare. Children living in poverty are
freezing and XYZ Company has just sent 500 new snow-
suits to the local dump. Parents of young children are
barely getting by and QPS Company dumps 1,000 cases of
disposable diapers because they have slight imperfections.
(30) The managers of these companies are not deliberately
wasteful; they are simply unaware of all their alternatives.
In 1976 the Internal Revenue Service provided a tangible
incentive for businesses to contribute their products to char-
ity. The new tax law allowed corporations to deduct the
(35)cost of the product donated plus half the difference
between cost and fair market selling price, with the proviso
that deductions cannot exceed twice cost. Thus, the federal
government sanctions—indeed, encourages—an above-cost
federal tax deduction for companies that donate inventory
1. The author mentions each of the following as a cause of
excess inventory EXCEPT
(A) production of too much merchandise
(B) inaccurate forecasting of buyers’ preferences
(C) unrealistic pricing policies
(D) products’ rapid obsolescence
(E) availability of a better product
2. The passage suggests that which of the following is a
kind of product that a liquidator who sells to discount
stores would be unlikely to wish to acquire?
(C) Kitchen equipment
(D) Baby-care products
(E) Children’s clothing
3. The passage provides information that supports which of
the following statements?
(A) Excess inventory results most often from
insufficient market analysis by the manufacturer.
(B) Products with slight manufacturing defects may
contribute to excess inventory.
(C) Few manufacturers have taken advantage of the
changes in the federal tax laws.
(D) Manufacturers who dump their excess inventory are
often caught and exposed by the news media.
(E) Most products available in discount stores have
come from manufacturers’ excess-inventory stock.
4. The author cites the examples in lines 25-29 most probably in order to illustrate
(A) the fiscal irresponsibility of dumping as a policy for
dealing with excess inventory
(B) the waste-management problems that dumping new
(C) the advantages to the manufacturer of dumping as a
(D) alternatives to dumping explored by different
(E) how the news media could portray dumping to the
detriment of the manufacturer’s reputation
5. By asserting that manufacturers “are simply unaware”
(line 31), the author suggests which of the following?
(A) Manufacturers might donate excess inventory to charity rather than dump it if they knew about the provision in the federal tax code.
(B) The federal government has failed to provide
sufficient encouragement to manufacturers to make
use of advantageous tax policies.
(C) Manufacturers who choose to dump excess
inventory are not aware of the possible effects on
their reputation of media coverage of such dumping.
(D) The manufacturers of products disposed of by
dumping are unaware of the needs of those people
who would find the products useful.
(E) The manufacturers who dump their excess inventory
are not familiar with the employment of liquidators
to dispose of overstock.
6. The information in the passage suggests that which of
the following, if true, would make donating excess inv
entory to charity less attractive to manufacturers than
(A) The costs of getting the inventory to the charitable
destination are greater than the above-cost tax
(B) The news media give manufacturers’ charitable
contributions the same amount of coverage that they
(C) No straight-cost tax benefit can be claimed for items
that are dumped.
(D) The fair-market value of an item in excess inventory
is 1.5 times its cost.
(E) Items end up as excess inventory because of a
change in the public’s preferences.
7. Information in the passage suggests that one reason
manufacturers might take advantage of the tax provision
mentioned in the last paragraph is that
(A) there are many kinds of products that cannot be
legally dumped in a landfill
(B) liquidators often refuse to handle products with
(C) the law allows a deduction in excess of the cost of
manufacturing the product
(D) media coverage of contributions of excess-inventory
products to charity is widespread and favorable
(E) no tax deduction is available for products dumped or
sold to a liquidator
Historians of women’s labor in the United States at first
largely disregarded the story of female service workers
-women earning wages in occupations such as salesclerk.
domestic servant, and office secretary. These historians
(5) focused instead on factory work, primarily because it
seemed so different from traditional, unpaid “women’s
work” in the home, and because the underlying economic
forces of industrialism were presumed to be gender-blind
and hence emancipatory in effect. Unfortunately, emanci-
(10) pation has been less profound than expected, for not even
industrial wage labor has escaped continued sex segre-
gation in the workplace.
To explain this unfinished revolution in the status of
women, historians have recently begun to emphasize the
( 15) way a prevailing definition of femininity often etermines
the kinds of work allocated to women, even when such
allocation is inappropriate to new conditions. For instance,
early textile-mill entrepreneurs, in justifying women’s
employment in wage labor, made much of the assumption
(20) that women were by nature skillful at detailed tasks and
patient in carrying out repetitive chores; the mill owners
thus imported into the new industrial order hoary stereo-
types associated with the homemaking activities they
presumed to have been the purview of women. Because
(25) women accepted the more unattractive new industrial tasks
more readily than did men, such jobs came to be regarded
as female jobs. And employers, who assumed that women’s
“real” aspirations were for marriage and family life.
declined to pay women wages commensurate with those of
(30) men. Thus many lower-skilled, lower-paid, less secure jobs
came to be perceived as “female.”
More remarkable than the origin has been the persistence
of such sex segregation in twentieth-century industry. Once
an occupation came to be perceived as “female.” employers
(35) showed surprisingly little interest in changing that
perception, even when higher profits beckoned. And despite
the urgent need of the United States during the Second
World War to mobilize its human resources fully, job
segregation by sex characterized even the most important
40) war industries. Moreover, once the war ended, employers
quickly returned to men most of the “male” jobs that
women had been permitted to master.
1. According to the passage, job segregation by sex in the
United States was
(A) greatly diminlated by labor mobilization during the
Second World War
(B) perpetuated by those textile-mill owners who argued
in favor of women’s employment in wage labor
(C) one means by which women achieved greater job
(D) reluctantly challenged by employers except when
the economic advantages were obvious
(E) a constant source of labor unrest in the young textile
2. According to the passage, historians of women’s labor
focused on factory work as a more promising area of
research than service-sector work because factory work
(A) involved the payment of higher wages
(B) required skill in detailed tasks
(C) was assumed to be less characterized by sex
(D) was more readily accepted by women than by men
(E) fitted the economic dynamic of industrialism better
3. It can be inferred from the passage that early historians
of women’s labor in the United States paid little
attention to women’s employment in the service sector
of the economy because
(A) the extreme variety of these occupations made it
very difficult to assemble meaningful statistics about
(B) fewer women found employment in the service
sector than in factory work
(C) the wages paid to workers in the service sector were
much lower than those paid in the industrial sector
(D) women’s employment in the service sector tended to
be much more short-term than in factory work
(E) employment in the service sector seemed to have
much in common with the unpaid work associated
4. The passage supports which of the following statements
about the early mill owners mentioned in the second
(A) They hoped that by creating relatively unattractive
“female” jobs they would discourage women from
losing interest in marriage and family life.
(B) They sought to increase the size of the available
labor force as a means to keep men’s to keep men’s
(C) They argued that women were inherently suited to
do well in particular kinds of factory work.
(D) They thought that factory work bettered the
condition of women by emancipating them from
dependence on income earned by men.
(E) They felt guilty about disturbing the traditional
division of labor in family.
5. It can be inferred from the passage that the “unfinished
revolution” the author mentions in line 13 refers to
(A) entry of women into the industrial labor market
(B) recognition that work done by women as
homemakers should be compensated at rates
comparable to those prevailing in the service sector
of the economy
(C) development of a new definition of femininity
unrelated to the economic forces of industrialism
(D) introduction of equal pay for equal work in all
(E) emancipation of women wage earners from gender-
determined job allocation
6. The passage supports which of the following statements
about hiring policies in the United States?
(A) After a crisis many formerly “male” jobs are
reclassified as “female” jobs.
(B) Industrial employers generally prefer to hire women
with previous experience as homemakers.
(C) Post-Second World War hiring policies caused
women to lose many of their wartime gains in
(D) Even war industries during the Second World War
were reluctant to hire women for factory work.
(E) The service sector of the economy has proved more
nearly gender-blind in its hiring policies than has the
7. Which of the following words best expresses the opinion
of the author of the passage concerning the notion that
women are more skillful than men in carrying out
(A) “patient” (line 21)
(B) “repetitive” (line 21)
(C) “hoary” (line 22)
(D) “homemaking” (line 23)
(E) “purview” (line 24)
8. Which of the following best describes the relationship of
the final paragraph to the passage as a whole?
(A) The central idea is reinforced by the citation of
evidence drawn from twentieth-century history.
(B) The central idea is restated in such a way as to form
a transition to a new topic for discussion.
(C) The central idea is restated and juxtaposed with
evidence that might appear to contradic it.
(D) A partial exception to the generalizations of the
central idea is dismissed as unimportant.
(E) Recent history is cited to suggest that the central
idea’s validity is gradually diminishing.
According to a recent theory, Archean-age gold-quartz
vein systems were formed over two billion years ago from
magmatic fluids that originated from molten granitelike
bodies deep beneath the surface of the Earth. This theory is
(5) contrary to the widely held view that the systems were
deposited from metamorphic fluids, that is, from fluids that
formed during the dehydration of wet sedimentary rocks.
he recently developed theory has considerable practical
importance. Most of the gold deposits discovered during
(10) the original gold rushes were exposed at the Earth’s surface
and were found because they had shed trails of alluvial
gold that were easily traced by simple prospecting methods.
Although these same methods still lead to an occasional
discovery, most deposits not yet discovered have gone
(15) undetected because they are buried and have no surface
The challenge in exploration is therefore to unravel the
subsurface geology of an area and pinpoint the position of
buried minerals. Methods widely used today include
(20) analysis of aerial images that yield a broad geological
overview; geophysical techniques that provide data on the
magnetic, electrical, and mineralogical properties of the
rocks being investigated; and sensitive chemical tests that
are able to detect the subtle chemical halos that often
(25) envelop mineralization. However, none of these high-
technology methods are of any value if the sites to which
they are applied have never mineralized, and to maximize
the chances of discovery the explorer must therefore pay
particular attention to selecting the ground formations most
(30) likely to be mineralized. Such ground selection relies to
varying degrees on conceptual models, which take into
account theoretical studies of relevant factors.
These models are constructed primarily from empirical
observations of known mineral deposits and from theories
35) of ore-forming processes. The explorer uses the models to
identify those geological features that are critical to the
formation of the mineralization being modeled, and then
tries to select areas for exploration that exhibit as many of
the critical features as possible.
1. The author is primarily concerned with
(A) advocating a return to an older methodology
(B) explaining the importance of a recent theory
(C) enumerating differences between two widely used
(D) describing events leading to a discovery
(E) challenging the assumptions on which a theory is
2. According to the passage, the widely held view of
Archean- age gold-quartz vein systems is that such
(A) were formed from metamorphic fluids
(B) originated in molten granitelike bodies
(C) were formed from alluvial deposits
(D) generally have surface expression
(E) are not discoverable through chemical tests
3. The passage implies that which of the following steps
would be the first performed by explorers who wish to
maximize their chances of discovering gold?
(A) Surveying several sites known to have been formed
more than two billion years ago
(B) Limiting exploration to sites known to have been
formed from metamorphic fluid.
(C) Using an appropriate conceptual model to select a
site for further exploration
(D) Using geophysical methods to analyze rocks over a
(E) Limiting exploration to sites where alluvial gold has
previously been found
4. Which of the following statements about discoveries of
gold deposits is supported by information in the
(A) The number of gold discoveries made annually has
increased between the time of the original gold rushes
and the present.
(B) New discoveries of gold deposits are likely to be the
result of exploration techniques designed to locate
(C) It is unlikely that newly discovered gold deposits will
ever yield as much as did those deposits discovered
during the original gold rushes.
(D) Modern explorers are divided on the question of the
utility of simple prospecting methods as a source of
new discoveries of gold deposits.
(E) Models based on the theory that gold originated
from magmatic fluids have already led to new
discoveries of gold deposits.
5. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
following is easiest to detect?
(A) A gold-quartz vein system originating in magmatic
(B) A gold-quartz vein system originating in
(C) A gold deposit that is mixed with granite
(D) A gold deposit that has shed alluvial gold
(E) A gold deposit that exhibits chemical halos
6. The theory mentioned in line 1 relates to the conceptual
models discussed in the passage in which of the
(A) It may furnish a valid account of ore-forming
processes, and, hence, can support conceptual
models that have great practical significance.
(B) It suggests that certain geological formations, long
believed to be mineralized, are in fact
mineralized, thus confirming current conceptual
(C) It suggests that there may not be enough similarity
across Archean-age gold-quartz vein systems to
warrant the formulation of conceptual models.
(D) It corrects existing theories about the chemical
halos of gold deposits, and thus provides a
basis for correcting current conceptual models.
(E) It suggests that simple prospecting methods
still have a higher success rate in the discovery
of gold deposits than do more modern methods.
7. According to the passage, methods of exploring for gold
that are widely used today are based on which of the
(A) Most of the Earth’s remaining gold deposits are still
(B) Most of the Earth’s remaining gold deposits are
exposed at the surface.
(C) Most of the Earth’s remaining gold deposits are
buried and have no surface expression.
(D) Only one type of gold deposit warrants exploration,
since the other types of gold deposits are found in
regions difficult to reach.
(E) Only one type of gold deposit warrants exploration,
since the other types of gold deposits are unlikely to
yield concentrated quantities of gold.
8. It can be inferred from the passage that the efficiency of
model-based gold exploration depends on which of the
Ⅰ. The closeness of the match between the geological
features identified by the model as critical and the
actual geological features of a given area
Ⅱ. The degree to which the model chosen relies on
empirical observation of known mineral deposits
rather than on theories of ore-forming processes
Ⅲ. The degree to which the model chosen is based on
an accurate description of the events leading to
(B) Ⅱ only
(C) Ⅰand Ⅱ only
(D) Ⅰ and Ⅲ only
(E) Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅲ
While there is no blueprint for transforming a largely
government-controlled economy into a free one, the
experience of the United Kingdom since 1979 clearly
shows one approach that works: privatization, in which
(5) state-owned industries are sold to private companies. By
1979, the total borrowings and losses of state-owned
industries were running at about t3 billion a year. By
selling many of these industries, the government has
decreased these borrowings and losses, gained over t34
(10) billion from the sales, and now receives tax revenues from
the newly privatized companies. Along with a dramatically
improved overall economy, the government has been able
to repay 12.5 percent of the net national debt over a
(15) In fact, privatization has not only rescued individual
industries and a whole economy headed for disaster, but
has also raised the level of performance in every area. At
British Airways and British Gas, for example, productivity
per employee has risen by 20 percent. At associated
(20) British Ports, labor disruptions common in the 1970’s and
early 1980’s have now virtually disappeared. At British
Telecom, there is no longer a waiting list—as there always
was before privatization—to have a telephone installed.
Part of this improved productivity has come about
(25) because the employees of privatized industries were given
the opportunity to buy shares in their own companies. They
responded enthusiastically to the offer of shares; at British
Aerospace, 89 percent of the eligible work force bought
shares; at Associated British Ports, 90 percent; and at
(30) British Telecom, 92 percent. When people have a personal
stake in something, they think about it, care about it, work
to make it prosper. At the National Freight Consortium,
the new employee-owners grew so concerned about their
company’s profits that during wage negotiations they
(35) actually pressed their union to lower its wage demands.
Some economists have suggested that giving away free
shares would provide a needed acceleration of the privati-
zation process. Yet they miss Thomas Paine’s point that
“what we obtain too cheap we esteem too lightly.” In
(40) order for the far-ranging benefits of individual ownership
to be achieved by owners, companies, and countries,
employees and other individuals must make their own
decisions to buy, and they must commit some of their own
resources to the choice.
1. According to the passage, all of the following were
benefits of privatizing state-owned industries in the
United Kingdom EXCEPT:
(A) Privatized industries paid taxes to the government.
(B) The government gained revenue from selling state-
(C) The government repaid some of its national debt.
(D) Profits from industries that were still state-owned
(E) Total borrowings and losses of state-owned
2. According to the passage, which of the following
resulted in increased productivity in companies that
have been privatized?
(A) A large number of employees chose to purchase
shares in their companies.
(B) Free shares were widely distributed to individual
(C) The government ceased to regulate major industries.
(D) Unions conducted wage negotiations for employees.
(E) Employee-owners agreed to have their wages
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
considers labor disruptions to be
(A) an inevitable problem in a weak national economy
(B) a positive sign of employee concern about a
(C) a predictor of employee reactions to a company’s
offer to sell shares to them
(D) a phenomenon found more often in state-owned
industries than in private companies
(E) a deterrence to high performance levels in an
4. The passage supports which of the following statements
about employees buying shares in their own companies?
(A) At three different companies, approximately nine
out of ten of the workers were eligible to buy
shares in their companies.
(B) Approximately 90% of the ellgible workers at three
different companies chose o buy shares in their
(C) The opportunity to buy shares was discouraged by at
least some labor unions.
(D) Companies that demonstrated the highest
productivity were the first to allow their employees
the opportunity to buy shares.
(E) Eligibility to buy shares was contingent on
employees’ agreeing to increased work loads.
5. Which of the following statements is most consistent
with the principle described in lines 30-32?
(A) A democratic government that decides it is
inappropriate to own a particular industry has in no
way abdicated its responsibilities as guardian of the
(B) The ideal way for a government to protect employee
interests is to force companies to maintain their
share of a competitive market without government
(C) The failure to harness the power of self-interest is an
important reason that state-owned industries perform
(D) Governments that want to implement privatization
programs must try to eliminate all resistance to the
(E) The individual shareholder will reap only a minute
share of the gains from whatever sacrifices he or she
makes to achieve these gains.
6. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage
about the privatization process in the United Kingdom?
(A) It depends to a potentially dangerous degree on
individual ownership of shares.
(B) It conforms in its most general outlines to Thomas
Palne’s prescription for business ownership.
(C) It was originally conceived to include some giving
away of free shares.
(D) It has been successful, even though privatization has
failed in other countries.
(E) It is taking place more slowly than some economists
suggest is necessary.
7. The quotation in line 39 is most probably used to
(A) counter a position that the author of the passage
believes is incorrect
(B) state a solution to a problem described in the
(C) show how opponents of the viewpoint of the author
of the passage have supported their arguments
(D) point out a paradox contained in a controversial
(E) present a historical maxim to challenge the principle
introduced in the third paragraph
As the economic role of multinational, global corpora-
tions expands, the international economic environment will
be shaped increasingly not by governments or international
institutions, but by the interaction between governments
(5) and global corporations, especially in the United States,
Europe, and Japan. A significant factor in this shifting
world economy is the trend toward regional trading biocs
of nations, which has a potentially large effect on the
evolution of the world trading system. Two examples of
(10) this trend are the United States-Canada Free Trade
Agreement (FTA) and Europe 1992, the move by the
European Community (EC) to dismantle impediments to
the free flow of goods, services, capital, and labor among
member states by the end of 1992. However, although
(15) numerous political and economic factors were operative in
launching the move to integrate the EC’s markets, concern
about protectionism within the EC does not appear to have
been a major consideration. This is in sharp contrast to the
FTA, the overwhelming reason for that bilateral initiative
(20) was fear of increasing United States protectionism. None-
theless, although markedly different in origin and nature,
both regional developments are highly significant in that
they will foster integration in the two largest and richest
markets of the world, as well as provoke questions
(25) about the future direction of the world trading system.
1. The primary purpose of the passage as a whole is to
(A) describe an initiative and propose its continuance
(B) chronicle a development and illustrate its
(C) identify a trend and suggest its importance
(D) summarize a process and question its significance
(E) report a phenomenon and outline its probable future
2. According to the passage, all of the following are
elements of the shifting world economy EXCEPT
(A) an alteration in the role played by governments
(B) an increase in interaction between national
governments and international regulatory institutions
(C) an increase in the formation of multinational trading
(D) an increase in integration in the two richest markets
of the world
(E) a fear of increasing United States protectionism
3. The passage suggests which of the following about
(A) Their continued growth depends on the existence of
a fully integrated international market.
(B) Their potential effect on the world market is a matter
of ongoing concern to international institutions.
(C) They will have to assume quasi-governmental
functions if current economic trends continue.
(D) They have provided a model of economic success
for regional trading blocs.
(E) Their influence on world economics will continue to
4. According to the passage, one similarity between the
FTA and Europe 1992 is that they both
(A) overcame concerns about the role of politics in the
shifting world economy
(B) originated out of concern over unfair trade practices
by other nations
(C) exemplify a trend toward regionalization of
(D) place the economic needs of the trading bloc ahead
of those of the member nations
(E) help to ensure the continued economic viability of
the world community
5. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage
about the European Community prior to the adoption of
the Europe 1992 program?
(A) There were restrictions on commerce between the
(B) The economic policies of the member nations
focused on global trading issues.
(C) There were few impediments to trade between the
member nations and the United States.
(D) The flow of goods between the member nations and
Canada was insignificant.
(E) Relations between multinational corporations and
the governments of the member nations were
6. The author discusses the FTA and Europe 1992 most
likely in order to
(A) point out the similarities between two seemingly
disparate trading alliances
(B) illustrate how different economic motivations
produce different types of trading blocs
(C) provide contrasting examples of a trend that is
influencing the world economy
(D) identify the most important characteristics of
successful economic integration
(E) trace the history of regional trading blocs
7. Which of the following best describes the organization
of the passage?
(A) An argument is put forth and evidence for and
against it given.
(B) An assertion is made and opposing evidence
(C) Two hypotheses are described and shown to
inconsistent with one another.
(D) A phenomenon is identified and illustrations of this
(E) A specific case of a phenomenon is discussed a
In Forces of Production, David Noble examines the
transformation of the machine-tool industry as the industry
moved from reliance on skilled artisans to automation.
Noble writes from a Marxist perspective, and his central
(5) argument is that management, in its decisions to automate,
conspired against labor: the power that the skilled machin-
ists wielded in the industry was intolerable to management.
Noble fails to substantiate this claim, although his argu-
ment is impressive when he applies the Marxist concept of
(10) “de-skilling”—the use of technology to replace skilled
labor—to the automation of the machine-tool industry. In
automating, the industry moved to computer-based, digi-
talized “numerical-control” (N/C) technology, rather than to
artisan-generated “record-playback” (R/P) technology.
(15) Although both systems reduced reliance on skilled labor,
Noble clearly prefers R/P, with its inherent acknowledg-
ment of workers’ skills: unlike N/C, its programs were
produced not by engineers at their computers, but by
skilled machinists, who recorded their own movements to
(20) “teach” machines to duplicate those movements. However,
Noble’s only evidence of conspiracy is that, although the
two approaches were roughly equal in technical merit,
management chose N/C. From this he concludes that auto-
mation is undertaken not because efficiency demands it or
(25) scientific advances allow it, but because it is a tool in
the ceaseless war of capitalists against labor.
1. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
(A) reexamining a political position and defending its
(B) examining a management decision and defending its
(C) analyzing a scholarly study and pointing out a
(D) explaining a trend in automation and warning about
(E) chronicling the history of an industry and criticizing
2. According to information in the passage, the term “de-
skilling” refers to the
(A) loss of skills to industry when skilled workers are
replaced by unskilled laborers
(B) substitution of mechanized processes for labor
formerly performed by skilled workers
(C) labor theory that automation is technologically
comparable to skilled labor
(D) process by which skilled machinists “teach”
machines to perform certain tasks
(E) exclusion of skilled workers from participation in
the development of automated technology
3. Which of the following best characterizes the function
of the second paragraph of the passage?
(A) It develops a topic introduced in the first paragraph.
(B) It provides evidence to refute a claim presented in
the first paragraph.
(C) It gives examples of a phenomenon mentioned in the
(D) It presents a generalization about examples given in
the first paragraph.
(E) It suggests two possible solutions to a problem
presented in the first paragraph.
4. The passage suggests which of the following about N
automation in the machine-tool industry?
(A) It displaced fewer skilled workers than R/P
(B) It could have been implemented either by
experienced machinists or by computer engineers.
(C) It was designed without the active involvement
(D) It was more difficult to design than R/P automation
(E) It was technically superior to R/P automation.
5. Which of the following phrases most clearly reveals the
attitude of the author of the passage toward Noble’s
(A) “conspired against” (line 6)
(B) “intolerable to management” (line 7)
(C) “impressive when he applies the Marxist concept”
(D) “clearly prefers” (line 16)
(E) “only evidence of conspiracy” (line 21)
6. The author of the passage commends Noble’s book for
which of the following?
(A) Concentrating on skilled as opposed to unskilled
workers in its discussion of the machine-tool
(B) Offering a generalization about the motives behind
the machine-tool industry’s decision to automate
(C) Making an essential distinction between two kinds
of technology employed in the machine-tool industry
(D) Calling into question the notion that managers
conspired against labor in the automation of the
(E) Applying the concept of de-skilling to the machine-
7. Which of the following best characterizes Forces of
Production as it is described in the passage?
(A) A comparison of two interpretations of how a
particular industry evolved
(B) An examination of the origin of a particular concept in industrial economics
(C) A study that points out the weakness of a particular
interpretation of an industrial phenomenon
(D) A history of a particular industry from an
ideological point of view
(E) An attempt to relate an industrial phenomenon in
one industry to a similar phenomenon in another
The sensation of pain cannot accurately be described as
“located” at the point of an injury, or, for that matter,
in any one place in the nerves or brain. Rather, pain
signals—and pain relief—are delivered through a highly
(5) complex interacting circuitry.
When a cell is injured, a rush of prostaglandin’s
sensitizes nerve endings at the injury. Prostaglandins are
chemicals produced in and released from virtually all
mammalian cells when they are injured: these are the only
(10) pain signals that do not originate in the nervous system.
Aspirin and other similar drugs (such as indomethacin and
ibuprofen) keep prostaglandins from being made by inter-
fering with an enzyme known as prostaglandin synthetase,
or cyclooxygenase. The drugs’ effectiveness against pain is
(15) proportional to their success in blocking this enzyme at the
site of injury.
From nerve endings at the injury, pain signais move to
nerves feeding into the spinal cord. The long, tubular
membranes of nerve cells carry electrical impulses. When
(20) electrical impulses get to the spinal cord, a pain-signaling
chemical known as substance P is released there.
Substance P then excites nearby neurons to send impulses
to the brain. Local anesthetics such as novocaine and
xylocaine work by blocking the electrical transmission
(25)along nerves in a particular area. They inhibit the flow of
sodium ions through the membranes, making the nerves
electrically quiescent; thus no pain signals are sent to the
spinal cord or to the brain.
Recent discoveries in the study of pain have involved
(30) the brain itself—the supervising organ that notices pain
signals and that sends messages down to the spinal cord
to regulate incoming pain traffic. Endorphins—the brain’s
own morphine—are a class of small peptides that help to
block pain signals within the brain itself. The presence
(35) of endorphins may also help to explain differences in
response to pain signals, since individuals seem to differ
in their ability to produce endorphins. It now appears that
a number of techniques for blocking chronic pain—such
as acupuncture and electrical stimulation of the central
(40) brain stem—involve the release of endorphins in the brain
and spinal cord.
1. The passage is primarily concerned with
(A) analyzing ways that enzymes and other chemicals
influence how the body feels pain
(B) describing the presence of endorphins in the brain
and discussing ways the body blocks pain within the
(C) describing how pain signals are conveyed in the
body and discussing ways in which the pain signals
can be blocked
(D) demonstrating that pain can be influenced by
acupuncture and electrical stimulation of the central
(E) differentiating the kinds of pain that occur at
different points in the body’s nervous system.
2. According to the passage, which of the following is one
of the first things to occur when cells are injured?
at the site of the injury is broken.
(B) The production of substance P traveling through
nerve cells to the brain increases.
(C) Endorphins begin to speed up the response of nerve
cells at the site of the injury.
(D) A flood of prostaglandins sensitizes nerve endings at
the site of the injury.
(E) Nerve cells connected to the spinal cord become
3. Of the following, which is most likely attributable to the
effect of endorphins as described in the passage?
(A) After an injection of novocaine, a patient has no
feeling in the area where the injection was given.
(B) After taking ibuprofen, a person with a headache
gets quick relief.
(C) After receiving a local anesthetic, an injured person
reports relief in the anestherized area.
(D) After being given aspirin, a child with a badly
scraped elbow feels better.
(E) After acupuncture, a patient with chronic back pain
reports that the pain is much less severe.
4. It can be inferred from the passage that if the
prostaglandin synthetase is only partially blocked, which
of the following is likely to be true?
(A) Some endorphins will be produced, and some pain
signals will be intensified.
(B) Some substance P is likely to be produced, so some
pain signals will reach the brain.
(C) Some sodium ions will be blocked, so some pain
signals will not reach the brain.
(D) Some prostaglandins will be produced, but
production of substance P will be prevented.
(E) Some peptides in the brain will receive pain signals
and begin to regulate incoming pain traffic.
Traditionally, the first firm to commercialize a new
technology has benefited from the unique opportunity to
shape product definitions, forcing followers to adapt to a
standard or invest in an unproven alternative. Today, how-
( 5) ever, the largest payoffs may go to companies that lead in
developing integrated approaches for successful mass
production and distribution.
Producers of the Beta format for videocassette recorders
(VCR’s), for example, were first to develop the VCR com-
(10) mercially in 1975, but producers of the rival VHS (Video
Home System) format proved to be more successful at
forming strategic alliances with other producers and
distributors to manufacture and market their VCR format
Seeking to maintain exclusive control over VCR distri-
(15) bution. Beta producers were reluctant to form such alli-
ances and eventually lost ground to VHS in the compe-
tition for the global VCR market.
Despite Beta’s substantial technological head start and
the fact that VHS was neither technically better nor cheaper
(20) than Beta, developers of VHS quickly turned a slight early
lead in sales into a dominant position. Strategic alignments
with producers of prerecorded tapes reinforced the VHS
advantage. The perception among consumers that prere-
corded tapes were more available in VHS format further
(25) expanded VHS’s share of the market. By the end of the
1980’s. Beta was no longer in production.
1. The passage is primarily concerned with which of the
(A) Evaluating two competing technologies
(B) Tracing the impact of a new technology by narrating
a sequence of events
(C) Reinterpreting an event from contemporary business
(D) illustrating a business strategy by means of a case
(E) Proposing an innovative approach to business
2. According to the passage, today’s successful firms,
unlike successful firms in the past, may earn the greatest
(A) investing in research to produce cheaper versions of
(B) being the first to market a competing technology
(C) adapting rapidly to a technological standard
previously set by a competing firm
(D) establishing technological leadership in order to
shape product definitions in advance of competing
(E) emphasizing the development of methods for the
mass production and distribution of a new
3. According to the passage, consumers began to develop a
preference for VCR’s in the VHS format because they
believed which of the following?
(A) VCR’s in the VHS format were technically better
than competing-format VCR’s.
(B) VCR’s in the VHS format were less expensive than
(C) VHS was the first standard format for VCR’s.
(D) VHS prerecorded videotapes were more available
than Beta-format tapes.
(E) VCR’s in the Beta format would soon cease to be
4. The author implies that one way that VHS producers
won control over the VCR market was by
(A) carefully restricting access to VCR technology
(B) giving up a slight early lead in VCR sales in order to
improve long-term prospects.
(C) retaining a strict monopoly on the production of
(D) sharing control of the marketing of VHS-format
(E) sacrificing technological superiority over Betaformat
VCR’s in order to remain competitive in price.
5. The alignment of producers of VHS-format VCR’s with
producers of prerecorded videotapes is most similar to
which of the following?
(A) The alignment of an automobile manufacturer with
another automobile manufacturer to adopt a
standard design for automobile engines.
(B) The alignment of an automobile manufacturer with
an automotive glass company whereby the
manufacturer agrees to purchase automobile
windshields only from that one glass company
(C) The alignment of an automobile manufacturer with a
petroleum company to ensure the widespread
availability of the fuel required by a new type of
engine developed by the manufacturer.
(D) The alignment of an automobile manufacturer with
its dealers to adopt a plan to improve automobile
(E) The alignment of an automobile dealer with an
automobile rental chain to adopt a strategy for an
advertising campaign to promote a new type of
6. Which of the following best describes the relation of the
first paragraph to the passage as a whole?
(A) It makes a general observation to be exemplified.
(B) It outlines a process to be analyzed.
(C) It poses a question to be answered.
(D) It advances an argument to be disputed.
(E) It introduces conflicting arguments to be reconciled.
Australian researchers have discovered electroreceptors
(sensory organs designed to respond to electrical fields)
clustered at the tip of the spiny anteater’s snout. The
researchers made this discovery by exposing small areas of
(5) the snout to extremely weak electrical fields and recording
the transmission of resulting nervous activity to the brain.
While it is true that tactile receptors, another kind of
sensory organ on the anteater’s snout, can also respond to
electrical stimuli, such receptors do so only in response to
( 10) electrical field strengths about 1,000 times greater than
those known to excite electroreceptors.
Having discovered the electroreceptors, researchers are
now investigating how anteaters utilize such a sophisticated
sensory system. In one behavioral experiment, researchers
(15) successfully trained an anteater to distinguish between
two troughs of water, one with a weak electrical field
and the other with none. Such evidence is consistent with
researchers’ hypothesis that anteaters use electroreceptors
to detect electrical signals given off by prey; however,
( 20) researchers as yet have been unable to detect electrical
signals emanating from termite mounds, where the favorite
food of anteaters live. Still, researchers have observed
anteaters breaking into a nest of ants at an oblique angle
and quickly locating nesting chambers. This ability quickly
(25) to locate unseen prey suggests, according to the researchers,
that the anteaters were using their electroreceptors to
locate the nesting chambers.
1. According to the passage, which of the following is a
characteristic that distinguishes electroreceptors from
(A) The manner in which electroreceptors respond to
(B) The tendency of electroreceptors to be found in
(C) The unusual locations in which electroreceptors are
found in most species.
(D) The amount of electrical stimulation required to
(E) The amount of nervous activity transmitted to the
brain by electroreceptors when they are excited
2. Which of the following can be inferred about the
experiment described in the first paragraph?
(A) Researchers had difficulty verifying the existence of
electroreceptors in the anteater because
electroreceptors respond to such a narrow range of
electrical field strengths.
(B) Researchers found that the level of nervous activity
in the anteater’s brain increased dramatically as the
strength of the electrical stimulus was increased.
(C) Researchers found that some areas of the anteater’s
snout were not sensitive to a weak electrical
(D) Researchers found that the anteater’s tactile
receptors were more easily excited by a strong
electrical stimulus than were the electro receptors..
(E) Researchers tested small areas of the anteater’s snout
in order to ensure that only electroreceptors were
responding to the stimulus.
3. The author of the passage most probably discusses the
function of tactile receptors (lines 7-11) in order to
(A) eliminate and alternative explanation of anteaters’
response to electrical stimuli
(B) highlight a type of sensory organ that has a function
identical to that of electroreceptors
(C) point out a serious complication in the research on
electroreceptors in anteaters.
(D) suggest that tactile receptors assist electroreceptors
in the detection of electrical signals.
(E) introduce a factor that was not addressed in the
research on electroreceptors in anteaters.
4. Which of the following can be inferred about anteaters
from the behavioral experiment mentioned in the
(A) They are unable to distinguish between stimuli
detected by their electroreceptors and stimuli
detected by their tactile receptors.
(B) They are unable to distinguish between the electrical
signals emanating from termite mounds and those
emanating from ant nests.
(C) They can be trained to recognize consistently the
presence of a particular stimulus.
(D) They react more readily to strong than to weak
(E) They are more efficient at detecting stimuli in a
controlled environment than in a natural
5. The passage suggests that the researchers mentioned in
the second paragraph who observed anteaters break into
a nest of ants would most likely agree with which of the
(A) The event they observed provides conclusive
evidence that anteaters use their electroreceptors to
locate unseen prey.
(B) The event they observed was atypical and may not
reflect the usual hunting practices of anteaters.
(C) It is likely that the anteaters located the ants’ nesting
chambers without the assistance of electroreceptors.
(D) Anteaters possess a very simple sensory system for
use in locating prey.
(E) The speed with which the anteaters located their
prey is greater than what might be expected on the
basis of chance alone.
6. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen
the hypothesis mentioned in lines 17-19?
(A) Researchers are able to train anteaters to break into
an underground chamber that is emitting a strong
(B) Researchers are able to detect a weak electrical
signal emanating from the nesting chamber of an ant
(C) Anteaters are observed taking increasingly longer
amounts of time to locate the nesting chambers of
(D) Anteaters are observed using various angles to break
into nests of ants.
(E) Anteaters are observed using the same angle used
with nests of ants to break into the nests of other types
When A. Philip Randolph assumed the leadership of the
Brotherhood of Sleeping Car Porters, he began a ten-year
battle to win recognition from the Pullman Company, the
largest private employer of Black people in the United
(5) States and the company that controlled the railroad
industry’s sleeping car and parlor service. In 1935 the
Brotherhood became the first Black union recognized by a
major corporation. Randolph’s efforts in the battle helped
transform the attitude of Black workers toward unions and
(10) toward themselves as an identifiable group; eventually,
Randolph helped to weaken organized labor’s antagonism
toward Black workers.
In the Pullman contest Randolph faced formidable
obstacles. The first was Black workers’ understandable
( 15) skepticism toward unions, which had historically barred
Black workers from membership. An additional obstacle
was the union that Pullman itself had formed, which
weakened support among Black workers for an
(20) The Brotherhood possessed a number of advantages,
however, including Randolph’s own tactical abilities. In
1928 he took the bold step of threatening a strike against
Pullman. Such a threat, on a national scale, under Black
leadership, helped replace the stereotype of the Black
(25)worker as servant with the image of the Black worker as
wage earner. In addition, the porters’ very isolation aided
the Brotherhood. Porters were scattered throughout the
country, sleeping in dormitories in Black communities;
their segregated life protected the union’s internal
(30) communications from interception. That the porters were a
homogeneous group working for a single employer with
single labor policy, thus sharing the same grievances from
city to city, also strengthened the Brotherhood and encour-
aged racial identity and solidarity as well. But it was only
(35) in the early 1930’s that federal legislation prohibiting a
company from maintaining its own unions with company
money eventually allowed the Brotherhood to become
recognized as the porters’ representative.
Not content with this triumph, Randolph brought the
(40) Brotherhood into the American Federation of Labor, where
it became the equal of the Federation’s 105 other unions.
He reasoned that as a member union, the Brotherhood
would be in a better position to exert pressure on member
unions that practiced race restrictions. Such restrictions
were eventually found unconstitutional in 1944.
1. According to the passage, by 1935 the skepticism of
Black workers toward unions was
(A) unchanged except among Black employees of
(B) reinforced by the actions of the Pullman Company’s
(C) mitigated by the efforts of Randolph
(D) weakened by the opening up of many unions to
(E) largely alleviated because of the policies of the
American Federation of Labor.
2. In using the word “understandable” (line 14), the
author most clearly conveys
(A) sympathy with attempts by the Brotherhood
between 1925 and 1935 to establish an independent
(B) concern that the obstacles faced by Randolph
between 1925 and 1935 were indeed formidable
(C) ambivalence about the significance of unions to
most Black workers in the 1920’s.
(D) appreciation of the attitude of many Black workers
in the 1920’s toward unions.
(E) regret at the historical attitude of unions toward
3. The passage suggests which of the following about the
response of porters to the Pullman Company’s own
(A) Few porters ever joined this union.
(B) Some porters supported this union before 1935.
(C) Porters, more than other Pullman employees,
enthusiastically supported this union.
(D) The porters’ response was most positive after 1935.
(E) The porters’ response was unaffected by the general
skepticism of Black workers concerning unions.
4. The passage suggests that if the grievances of porters in
one part of the United States had been different from
those of porters in another part of the country, which of
the following would have been the case?
(A) It would have been more difficult for the Pullman
Company to have had a single labor policy.
(B) It would have been more difficult for the
Brotherhood to control its channels of
(C) It would have been more difficult for the
Brotherhood to uild its membership.
(D) It would have been easier for the Pullman
Company’s union to attract membership.
(E) It would have been easier for the Brotherhood to
5. The passage suggests that in the 1920’s a company in
the United States was able to
(A) use its own funds to set up a union
(B) require its employees to join the company’s own
(C) develop a single labor policy for all its employees
with little employee dissent.
(D) pressure its employees to contribute money to
maintain the company’s own union
(E) use its resources to prevent the passage of federal
legislation that would have facilitated the formation
of independent unions.
6. The passage supplies information concerning which of
the following matters related to Randolph?
(A) The steps he took to initiate the founding of the
(B) His motivation for bringing the Brotherhood into the
American Federation of Labor
(C) The influence he had on the passage of legislation
overturning race restrictions in 1944
(D) The influence he had on the passage of legislation to
bar companies from financing their own unions
(E) The success he and the Brotherhood had in
influencing the policies of the other unions in the
American Federation of Labor
Seeking a competitive advantage, some professional
service firms(for example, firms providing advertising,
accounting, or health care services) have considered
offering unconditional guarantees of satisfaction. Such
(5) guarantees specify what clients can expect and what the
firm will do if it fails to fulfill these expectations.
Particularly with first-time clients, an unconditional
guarantee can be an effective marketing tool if the
client is very cautious, the firm’s fees are high, the
(10) negative consequences of bad service are grave, or
business is difficult to obtain through referrals and
However, an unconditional guarantee can sometimes
hinder marketing efforts. With its implication that fail-
(15) ure is possible, the guarantee may, paradoxically, cause
clients to doubt the service firm’s ability to deliver the
promised level of service. It may conflict with a firm’s
desire to appear sophisticated, or may even suggest that
a firm is begging for business. In legal and health care
(20) services, it may mislead clients by suggesting that law-
suits or medical procedures will have guaranteed out-
comes. Indeed, professional service firms with outstandin
reputations and performance to match have little to gain
from offering unconditional guarantees. And any firm
(25) that implements an unconditional guarantee without
undertaking a commensurate commitment to quality of
service is merely employing a potentially costly
1. The primary function of the passage as a whole is to
(A) account for the popularity of a practice
(B) evaluate the utility of a practice
(C) demonstrate how to institute a practice
(D) weigh the ethics of using a strategy
(E) explain the reasons for pursuing a strategy
2. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as
circumstances in which professional service firms can
benefit from offering an unconditional guarantee
(A) The firm is having difficulty retaining its clients of
(B) The firm is having difficulty getting business
through client recommendations.
(C) The firm charges substantial fees for its services.
(D) The adverse effects of poor performance by the firm
are significant for the client.
(E) The client is reluctant to incur risk.
3. Which of the following is cited in the passage as a goal
of some professional service firms in offering
unconditional guarantees of satisfaction?
(A) A limit on the firm’s liability
(B) Successful competition against other firms
(C) Ability to justify fee increases
(D) Attainment of an outstanding reputation in a field
(E) Improvement in the quality of the firm’s service
4. The passage’s description of the issue raised by
unconditional guarantees for health care or legal
services most clearly implies that which of the following
(A) The legal and medical professions have standards of
practice that would be violated by attempts to fulfill
such unconditional guarantees.
(B) The result of a lawsuit of medical procedure cannot
necessarily be determined in advance by the
professionals handling a client’s case.
(C) The dignity of the legal and medical professions is
undermined by any attempts at marketing of
professional services, including unconditional
(D) Clients whose lawsuits or medical procedures have
unsatisfactory outcomes cannot be adequately
compensated by financial settlements alone.
(E) Predicting the monetary cost of legal or health care
services is more difficult than predicting the
monetary cost of other types of professional
5. Which of the following hypothetical situations best
exemplifies the potential problem noted in the second
sentence of the second paragraph (lines 14-17)?
(A) A physician’s unconditional guarantee of
satisfaction encourages patients to sue for
malpractice if they are unhappy with the treatment
(B) A lawyer’s unconditional guarantee of satisfaction
makes clients suspect that the lawyer needs to find
new clients quickly to increase the firm’s income.
(C) A business consultant’s unconditional guarantee of
satisfaction is undermined when the consultant fails
to provide all of the services that are promised.
(D) An architect’s unconditional guarantee of
satisfaction makes clients wonder how often the
architect’s buildings fail to please clients.
(E) An accountant’s unconditional guarantee of
satisfaction leads clients to believe that tax returns
prepared by the accountant are certain to be
6. The passage most clearly implies which of the following
about the professional service firms mentioned in line
(A) They are unlikely to have offered unconditional
guarantees of satisfaction in the past.
(B) They are usually profitable enough to be able to
compensate clients according to the terms of an
(C) They usually practice in fields in which the
outcomes are predictable.
(D) Their fees are usually more affordable than those
charged by other professional service firms.
(E) Their clients are usually already satisfied with the
quality of service that is delivered.
Although genetic mutations in bacteria and viruses
can lead to epidemics, some epidemics are caused by
bacteria and viruses that have undergone no significant
genetic change. In analyzing the latter, scientists have
(5) discovered the importance of social and ecological fac-
tors to epidemics. Poliomyelitis, for example, emerged
as an epidemic in the United States in the twentieth
century; by then, modern sanitation was able to delay
exposure to polio until adolescence or adulthood, at
(10) which time polio infection produced paralysis. Previ-
ously, infection had occurred during infancy, when it
typically provided lifelong immunity without paralysis.
Thus, the hygiene that helped prevent typhoid epidemics
indirectly fostered a paralytic polio epidemic. Another
(15) example is Lyme disease, which is caused by bacteria
that are transmitted by deer ticks. It occurred only spo-
radically during the late nineteenth century but has
recently become prevalent in parts of the United States,
largely due to an increase in the deer population that
(20) occurred simultaneously with the growth of the suburbs
and increased outdoor recreational activities in the
deer’s habitat. Similarly, an outbreak of dengue hemor-
rhagic fever became an epidemic in Asia in the 1950’s
because of ecological changes that caused Aedes aegypti,
(25) the mosquito that transmits the dengue virus, to proliferate
The stage is now set in the United States for a
dengue epidemic because of the inadvertent introduction
and wide dissemination of another mosquito, Aedes
1. The passage suggests that a lack of modern sanitation
would make which of the following most likely to
(A) An outbreak of Lyme disease
(B) An outbreak of dengue hemorrhagic fever
(C) An epidemic of typhoid
(D) An epidemic of paralytic polio among infants
(E) An epidemic of paralytic polio among adolescents
2. According to the passage, the outbreak of dengue
hemorrhagic fever in the 1950’s occurred for which of
the following reasons?
(A) The mosquito Aedes aegypti was newly introduced
(B) The mosquito Aedes aegypti became more
(C) The mosquito Aedes albopictus became infected
with the dengue virus.
(D) Individuals who would normally acquire immunity
to the dengue virus as infants were not infected until
later in life.
(E) More people began to visit and inhabit areas in
which mosquitos live and breed.
3. It can be inferred from the passage that Lyme disease
has become prevalent in parts of the United States
because of which of the following?
(A) The inadvertent introduction of Lyme disease
bacteria to the United States
(B) The inability of modern sanitation methods to
eradicate Lyme disease bacteria
(C) A genetic mutation in Lyme disease bacteria that
makes them more virulent
(D) The spread of Lyme disease bacteria from infected
humans to noninfected humans
(E) An increase in the number of humans who encounter
4. Which of the following can most reasonably be
concluded about the mosquito Aedes albopictus on the
basis of information given in the passage?
(A) It is native to the United States.
(B) It can proliferate only in Asia.
(C) It transmits the dengue virus.
(D) It caused an epidemic of dengue hemorrhagic fever
in the 1950’s.
(E) It replaced Aedes aegypti in Asia when ecological
changes altered Aedes aegypti’s habitat.
5. Which of the following best describes the organization
of the passage?
(A) A paradox is stated, discussed and left unresolved.
(B) Two opposing explanations are presented, argued,
(C) A theory is proposed and is then followed by
descriptions of three experiments that support the
(D) A generalization is stated and is then followed by
three instances that support the generalization.
(E) An argument is described and is then followed by
three counterexamples that refute the argument.
6. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen
the author’s assertion about the cause of the Lyme
disease outbreak in the United States?
(A) The deer population was smaller in the late
nineteenth century than in the mid-twentieth century.
(B) Interest in outdoor recreation began to grow in the
late nineteenth century.
(C) In recent years the suburbs have stopped growing.
(D) Outdoor recreation enthusiasts routinely take
measures to protect themselves against Lyme
(E) Scientists have not yet developed a vaccine that can
prevent Lyme disease.
Two modes of argumentation have been used on
behalf of women’s emancipation in Western societies.
Arguments in what could be called the “relational”
feminist tradition maintain the doctrine of “equality in
(5) difference,” or equity as distinct for equality. They
posit that biological distinctions between the sexes
result in a necessary sexual division of labor in the
family and throughout society and that women’s pro-
creative labor is currently undervalued by society, to
(10) the disadvantage of women. By contrast, the individual-
ist feminist tradition emphasizes individual human rights
and celebrates women’s quest for personal autonomy,
while downplaying the importance of gender roles and
minimizing discussion of childbearing and its attendant
Before the late nineteenth century, these views
coexisted within the feminist movement, often within
the writings of the same individual. Between 1890 nd
1920, however, relational feminism, which had been the
(20) dominant strain in feminist thought, and which still pre-
dominates among European and non-Western feminists,
lost ground in England and the United States. Because
the concept of individual rights was already well estab-
lished in the Anglo-Saxon legal and political tradition,
(25) individualist feminism came to predominate in English-
speaking countries. At the same time, the goals of the
two approaches began to seem increasingly irreconcil-
able. Individualist feminists began to advocate a totally
gender-blind system with equal rights for all. Relational
(30) feminists, while agreeing that equal educational and
economic opportunities outside the home should be avail-
able for all women, continued to emphasize women’s
special contributions to society as homemakers and
mothers; they demanded special treatment
(35) including protective legislation for women workers,
state-sponsored maternity benefits, and paid compensa-
tion for housework.
Relational arguments have a major pitfall: because
they underline women’s physiological and psychological
(40) distinctiveness, they are often appropriated by political
adversaries and used to endorse male privilege. But the
individualist approach, by attacking gender roles, deny-
ing the significance of physiological difference, and
condemning existing familial institutions as hopelessly
(45) patriarchal, has often simply treated as irrelevant the
family roles important to many women. If the individu-
alist framework, with its claim for women’s autonomy,
could be harmonized with the family-oriented concerns
of relational feminists, a more fruitful model for con-
(50) temporary feminist politics could emerge.
1. The author of the passage alludes to the well-
established nature of the concept of individual rights in
the Anglo-Saxon legal and political tradition in order to
(A) illustrate the influence of individualist feminist
thought on more general intellectual trends in
(B) argue that feminism was already a part of the larger
Anglo-Saxon intellectual tradition, even though this
has often gone unnoticed by critics of women’s
(C) explain the decline in individualist thinking among
feminists in non-English-speaking countries
(D) help account for an increasing shift toward
individualist feminism among feminists in English-
(E) account for the philosophical differences between
individualist and relational feminists in English-
2. The passage suggests that the author of the passage
believes which of the following?
(A) The predominance of individualist feminism in
English-speaking countries is a historical
phenomenon, the causes of which have not yet
(B) The individualist and relational feminist views are
irreconcilable, given their theoretical differences
concerning the foundations of society.
(C) A consensus concerning the direction of future
feminist politics will probably soon emerge, given
the awareness among feminists of the need for
cooperation among women.
(D) Political adversaries of feminism often misuse
arguments predicated on differences between the
sexes to argue that the existing social system
should be maintained.
(E) Relational feminism provides the best theoretical
framework for contemporary feminist politics, but
individualist feminism could contribute much
toward refining and strengthening modern feminist
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the individualist
feminist tradition denies the validity of which of the
following causal statements?
(A) A division of labor in a social group can result in
increased efficiency with regard to the performance
of group tasks.
(B) A division of labor in a social group causes
inequities in the distribution of opportunities and
benefits among group members.
(C) A division of labor on the basis of gender in a social
group is necessitated by the existence of sex-linked
biological differences between male and female
members of the group.
(D) Culturally determined distinctions based on gender
in a social group foster the existence of differing
attitudes and opinions among group members.
(E) Educational programs aimed at reducing inequalities
based on gender among members of a social group
can result in a sense of greater well-being for all
members of the group.
4. According to the passage, relational feminists and
individualist feminists agree that
(A) individual human rights take precedence over most
other social claims
(B) the gender-based division of labor in society should
(C) laws guaranteeing equal treatment for all citizens
regardless of gender should be passed
(D) a greater degree of social awareness concerning the
importance of motherhood would be beneficial to
(E) the same educational and economic opportunities
should be available to both sexes
5. According to the author, which of the following was true
of feminist thought in Western societies before 1890?
(A) Individualist feminist arguments were not found in
the thought or writing of non-English-speaking
(B) Individualist feminism was a strain in feminist
thought, but another strain, relational feminism,
(C) Relational and individualist approaches were equally
prevalent in feminist thought and writing.
(D) The predominant view among feminists held that the
welfare of women was ultimately less important than
the welfare of children.
(E) The predominant view among feminists held that the
sexes should receive equal treatment under the law.
6. The author implies that which of the following was true
of most feminist thinkers in England and the United
States after 1920?
(A) They were less concerned with politics than with
(B) They began to reach a broader audience and their
programs began to be adopted by mainstream
(C) They called repeatedly for international cooperation
among women’s groups to achieve their goals.
(D) They moderated their initial criticism of the
economic systems that characterized their societies.
(E) They did not attempt to unite the two different
feminist approaches in their thought.
Some observers have attributed the dramatic growth
in temporary employment that occurred in the United
states during the 1980’s to increased participation in
the workforce by certain groups, such as first-time or
(5) reentering workers, who supposedly prefer such arrange-
ments. However, statistical analyses reveal that demo-
graphic changes in the workforce did not correlate with
variations in the total number of temporary workers.
Instead, these analyses suggest that factors affecting.
(10) employers account for the rise in temporary employ-
ment. One factor is product demand: temporary
employment is favored by employers who are adapting
to fluctuating demand for products while at the same
time seeking to reduce overall labor costs. Another
(15) factor is labor’s reduced bargaining strength, which
allows employers more control over the terms of
employment. Given the analyses, which reveal that
growth in temporary employment now far exceeds the
level explainable by recent workforce entry rates of
(20) groups said to prefer temporary jobs, firms should be
discouraged from creating excessive numbers of tem-
porary positions. Government policymakers should
consider mandating benefit coverage for temporary
employees, promoting pay equity between temporary
(25) and permanent workers, assisting labor unions in orga-
nizing temporary workers, and encouraging firms to
assign temporary jobs primarily to employees who
explicitly indicate that preference.
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) present the results of statistical analyses and propose
(B) explain a recent development and predict its
(C) identify the reasons for a trend and recommend
measures to address it.
(D) outline several theories about a phenomenon and
advocate one of them
(E) describe the potential consequences of implementing
a new policy and argue in favor of that policy.
2. According to the passage, which of the following is true
of the “factors affecting employers” that are mentioned
(A) Most experts cite them as having initiated the
growth in temporary employment that occurred
during the 1980’s.
(B) They may account for the increase in the total
number of temporary workers during the 1980’s.
(C) They were less important than demographic change
in accounting for the increase of temporary
employment during the 1980’s.
(D) They included a sharp increase in the cost of labor
during the 1980’s.
(E) They are more difficult to account for than at other
factors involved in the growth of temporary
employment during the 1980’s.
3. The passage suggests which of the following about the
use of temporary employment by firms during the
(A) It enabled firms to deal with fluctuating product
demand far more efficiently than they before the
(B) It increased as a result of increased participation in
the workforce by certain demograp groups.
(C) It was discouraged by government-mandated
(D) It was a response to preferences indicated by certain
employees for more flexible working arrangements.
(E) It increased partly as a result of workers’ reduced
ability to control the terms of their employment.
4. The passage suggests which of the following about the
workers who took temporary jobs during the 1980’s?
(A) Their jobs frequently led to permanent positions
(B) They constituted a less demographically diverse
group than has been suggested.
(C) They were occasionally involved in actions
organized by labor unions.
(D) Their pay declined during the decade in comparison
with the pay of permanent employees.
(E) They did not necessarily prefer temporary
employment to permanent employment.
5. The first sentence in the passage suggests that the
observers mentioned in line 1 would be most likely to
predict which of the following?
(A) That the number of new temporary positions would
decline as fewer workers who preferred temporary
employment entered the workforce.
(B) That the total number of temporary positions would
increase as fewer workers were able to find
(C) That employers would have less control over the
terms of workers’ employment as workers
increased their bargaining strength.
(D) That more workers would be hired for temporary
positions as product demand increased.
(E) That the number of workers taking temporary
positions would increase as more workers in any
given demographic group entered the workforce.
6. In the context of the passage, the word “excessive” (line
21) most closely corresponds to which of the
(A) Far more than can be justified by worker
(B) Far more than can be explained by fluctuations in
(C) Far more than can be beneficial to the success of the
(D) Far more than can be accounted for by an expanding
(E) Far more than can be attributed to increases in the
total number of people in the workforce.
7. The passage mentions each of the following as an
appropriate kind of governmental action EXCEPT
(A) getting firms to offer temporary employment
primarily to a certain group of people.
(B) encouraging equitable pay for temporary and
(C) facilitating the organization of temporary workers by
(D) establishing guidelines on the proportion of
temporary workers that firms should employ
(E) ensuring that temporary workers obtain benefits
from their employers.
Although numbers of animals in a given region may
fluctuate from year to year, the fluctuations are often
temporary and, over long periods, trivial. Scientists
have advanced three theories of population control to
(5) account for this relative constancy.
The first theory attributes a relatively constant popu-
lation to periodic climatic catastrophes that decimate
populations with such frequency as to prevent them
from exceeding some particular limit. In the case of
(10) small organisms with short life cycles, climatic changes
need not be catastrophic: normal seasonal changes in
photoperiod (daily amount of sunlight), for example,
can govern population growth. This theory—the
density-independent view—asserts that climatic factors
(15) exert the same regulatory effect on population regard-
less of the number of individuals in a region.
A second theory argues that population growth is
primarily density-dependent—that is, the rate of
growth of a population in a region decreases as the
(20) number of animals increases. The mechanisms that
manage regulation may vary. For example, as numbers
increase, the food supply would probably diminish,
which would increase mortality. In addition, as Lotka
and Volterra have shown, predators can find prey more
(25) easily in high-density populations. Other regulators
include physiological control mechanisms: for example.
Christian and Davis have demonstrated how the
crowding that results from a rise in numbers may bring
about hormonal changes in the pituitary and adrenal
(30) glands that in turn may regulate population by lowering
sexual activity and inhibiting sexual maturation. There
is evidence that these effects may persist for three
generations in the absence of the original provocation.
One challenge for density-dependent theorists is to
(35) develop models that would allow the precise prediction
of the effects of crowding.
A third theory, proposed by Wynne-Edwards and
termed “epideictic,” argues that organisms have evolved
a “code”in the form of social or epideictic behavior
(40) displays, such as winter-roosting aggregations or group
vocalizing; such codes provide organisms with infor-
mation on population size in a region so that they can,
if necessary, exercise reproductive restraint. However,
wynne-Edwards’ theory, linking animal social behavior
(45) and population control, has been challenged, with some
justification, by several studies.
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) argue against those scientists who maintain that
animal populations tend to fluctuate
(B) compare and contrast the density-dependent
and epideictic theories of population control
(C) provide example of some of the ways in which
animals exercise reproductive restraint to
control their own numbers
(D) suggests that theories of population control that
concentrate on the social behavior of animals
are more open to debate than are theories that do not
(E) summarize a number of scientific theories that
attempt to explain why animal populations do
not exceed certain limits
2. It can be inferred from the passage that proponents
of the density-dependent theory of population control
have not yet been able to
(A) use their theory to explain the population growth of
organisms with short life cycles
(B) reproduce the results of the study of Christian and
(C) explain adequately why the numbers of a population
can increase as the population’s rate of growth
(D) make sufficiently accurate predictions about the
effects of crowding
(E) demonstrate how predator populations are
3. Which of the following, if true, would best support the
density-dependent theory of population control as it is
described in the passage?
(A) As the number of foxes in Minnesota decrease, the
growth rate of this population of foxes begins of
(B) As the number of woodpeckers in Vermont
decreases, the growth rate of this population of
woodpeckers also begins to decrease.
(C) As the number of prairie dogs in Oklahoma
increases, the growth rate of this population of
prairie dogs also begins to increase.
(D) After the number of beavers in Tennessee decreases,
the number of predators of these beavers begins to
(E) After the number of eagles in Montana decreases,
the food supply of this population of eagles also
begins to decrease.
4. According to the Wynne-Edwards theory as it is
described in the passage, epideictic behavior displays
serve the function of
(A) determining roosting aggregations
(B) locating food
(C) attracting predators
(D) regulating sexual activity
(E) triggering hormonal changes
5. The challenge posed to the Wynne-Edwards-theory by
several studies is regarded by the author with
(A) complete indifference
(B) qualified acceptance
(C) skeptical amusement
(D) perplexed astonishment
(E) agitated dismay
6. Which of the following statements would provide the
most of logical continuation of the final paragraph of the
(A) Thus wynne-Edwards’ theory raises serious
questions about the constancy of animal population
in a region.
(B) Because Wynne-Edwards’ theory is able to explain
more kinds of animal behavior than is the density-
dependent theory, epideictic explanations of
regulation are now widely accepted.
(C) The results of one study, for instance, have
suggested that group vocalizing is more often used
to defend territory than to provide information about
(D) Some of these studies have, in fact, worked out
a systematic and complex code of social behavior
that can regulate population size.
(E) One study, for example, has demonstrated that birds
are more likely to use winter-roosting aggregations
than group vocalizing in order to provide
on population size.
In recent years, teachers of introductory courses in
Asian American studies have been facing a dilemma
nonexistent a few decades ago, when hardly any texts
in that field were available. Today, excellent antho-
(5) logies and other introductory texts exist, and books on
individual Asian American nationality groups and on
general issues important for Asian Americans are
published almost weekly. Even professors who are
experts in the field find it difficult to decide which of
(10) these to assign to students; nonexperts who teach in
related areas and are looking for writings for and by
Asian American to include in survey courses are in an
even worse position.
A complicating factor has been the continuing lack
(15) of specialized one-volume reference works on Asian
Americans, such as biographical dictionaries or desktop
encyclopedias. Such works would enable students
taking Asian American studies courses (and professors
in related fields) to look up basic information on Asian
(20) American individuals, institutions, history, and culture
without having to wade through mountains of primary
source material. In addition, give such works, Asian
American studies professors might feel more free to
include more challenging Asian American material in
(25) their introductory reading lists, since good reference
works allow students to acquire on their own the back-
ground information necessary to interpret difficult or
1. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
doing which of the following?
(A) Recommending a methodology
(B) Describing a course of study
(C) Discussing a problem
(D) Evaluating a past course of action
(E) Responding to a criticism
2. The “dilemma” mentioned in line 2 can best be
characterized as being caused by the necessity to make a
choice when faced with a
(A) lack of acceptable alternatives
(B) lack of strict standards for evaluating alternatives
(C) preponderance of bad alternatives as compared to
(D) multitude of different alternatives
(E) large number of alternatives that are nearly identical
3. The passage suggests that the factor mentioned in lines
14-17 complicates professors’ attempts to construct
introductory reading lists for courses in Asian American
studies in which of the following ways?
(A) By making it difficult for professors to identify
primary source material and to obtain standard
information on Asian American history and culture
(B) By preventing professors from identifying excellent
anthologies and introductory texts in the field that
are both recent and understandable to students
(C) By preventing professors from adequately
evaluating the quality of the numerous texts
currently being published in the field
(D) Such courses were offered only at schools whose
libraries were rich in primary sources.
(E) By making it more necessary for professors to select
readings for their courses that are not too
challenging for students unfamiliar with Asian
(E) By making it more likely that the readings
professors assign to students in their courses will be
drawn solely from primary sources
4. The passage implies that which of the following was
true of introductory courses in Asian American studies a
few decades ago?
(A) The range of different textbooks that could be
assigned for such courses was extremely limited.
(B) The texts assigned as readings in such courses were
often not very challenging for students.
(C) Students often complained about the texts assigned
to them in such courses.
(D) Such courses were the only means then available by
which people in the United States could acquire
knowledge of the field.
5. According to the passage, the existence of good one-
volume reference works about Asian Americans could
(A) increased agreement among professors of Asian
American studies regarding the quality of the
sources available in their field
(B) an increase in the number of students signing up for
introductory courses in Asian American studies
(C) increased accuracy in writings that concern Asian
American history and culture
(D) the use of introductory texts about Asian American
history and culture in courses outside the field of
Asian American studies
(E) the inclusion of a wider range of Asian American
material in introductory reading lists in Asian
In an attempt to improve the overall performance of
clerical workers, many companies have introduced com-
puterized performance monitoring and control systems
(CPMCS) that record and report a worker’s computer-
(5) driven activities. However, at least one study has shown
that such monitoring may not be having the desired effect.
In the study, researchers asked monitored clerical workers
and their supervisors how assessments of productivity
affected supervisors’ ratings of workers’ performance. In
(10) contrast to unmonitored workers doing the same work, who
without exception identified the most important element in
their jobs as customer service, the monitored workers and
their supervisors all responded that productivity was the
critical factor in assigning ratings. This finding suggested
(15) that there should have been a strong correlation between a
monitored worker’s productivity and the overall rating the
worker received. However, measures of the relationship
between overall rating and individual elements of perfor-
mance clearly supported the conclusion that supervisors
(20) gave considerable weight to criteria such as
attendance.accuracy, and indications of customer
It is possible that productivity may be a “hygiene
factor.” that is, if it is too low, it will hurt the overall
rating. But the evidence suggests that beyond the point at
(25) which productivity becomes “good enough.” higher
productivity per se is unlikely to improve a rating.
1. According to the passage, before the final results of the
study were known, which of the following seemed
(A) That workers with the highest productivity would
also be the most accurate
(B) That workers who initially achieved high
productivity ratings would continue to do so
(C) That the highest performance ratings would be
achieved by workers with the highest productivity
(D) That the most productive workers would be those
whose supervisors claimed to value productivity
(E) That supervisors who claimed to value productivity
would place equal value on customer satisfaction
2. It can be inferred that the author of the passage
discusses “unmonitored workers”(line 10) primarily
in order to
(A) compare the ratings of these workers with the
ratings of monitored workers
(B) provide an example of a case in which monitoring
might be effective
(C) provide evidence of an inappropriate use of CPMCS
(D) emphasize the effect that CPMCS may have on
workers’ perceptions of their jobs
(E) illustrate the effect that CPMCS may have on
3. Which of the following, if true, would most clearly have
supported the conclusion referred to in lines 19-21?
(A) Ratings of productivity correlated highly with
ratings of both accuracy and attendance.
(B) Electronic monitoring greatly increased productivity.
(C) Most supervisors based overall ratings of
performance on measures of productivity alone.
(D) Overall ratings of performance correlated more
highly with measures of productivity than the
(E) Overall ratings of performance correlated more
highly with measures of accuracy than with
measures of productivity.
4. According to the passage, a “hygiene factor” (lines 22-
23) is an aspect of a worker’s performance that
(A) has no effect on the rating of a worker’s
(B) is so basic to performance that it is assumed to be
adequate for all workers
(C) is given less importance than it deserves in rating a
(D) if not likely to affect a worker’s rating unless it is
judged to be inadequate
(E) is important primarily because of the effect it has on
a worker’s rating
5. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) explain the need for the introduction of an
(B) discuss a study of the use of a particular method
(C) recommend a course of action
(D) resolved a difference of opinion
(E) suggest an alternative approach
Schools expect textbooks to be a valuable source of
information for students. My research suggests, however,
that textbooks that address the place of Native Americans
within he history of the United States distort history to suit
(5) a particular cultural value system. In some textbooks, for
example, settlers are pictured as more humane, complex,
skillful, and wise than Native American. In essence,
textbooks stereotype and deprecate the numerous Native
American cultures while reinforcing the attitude that the
(10) European conquest of the New World denotes the superi-
ority of European cultures. Although textbooks evaluete
Native American architecture, political systems, and home-
making. I contend that they do it from an ethnocentric,
(15) European perspective without recognizing that other per-
spectives are possible.
One argument against my contention asserts that, by
nature, textbooks are culturally biased and that I am simply
underestimating children’s ability to see through these
(20) biases. Some researchers even claim that by the time
students are in high school, they know they cannot take
textbooks literally. Yet substantial evidence exists to the
contrary. Two researchers, for example, have conducted
studies that suggest that children’s attitudes about particular
(25) culture are strongly influenced by the textbooks used in
schools. Given this, an ongoing, careful review of how
school textbooks depict Native American is certainly
1. Which of the following would most logically be the
topic of the paragraph immediately following the
(A) Specific ways to evaluate the biases of United States
(B) The centrality of the teacher’s role in United States
(C) Nontraditional methods of teaching United States
(D) The contributions of European immigrants to the
development of the United States
(E) Ways in which parents influence children’s political
2. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) describe in detail one research study regarding the
impact of history textbooks on children’s attitudes
and beliefs about certain cultures
(B) describe revisions that should be made to United
States history textbooks
(C) discuss the difficulty of presenting an accurate
history of the United States
(D) argue that textbooks used in schools stereotype
Native Americans and influence children’s attitudes
(E) summarize ways in which some textbooks give
distorted pictures of the political systems developed
by various Native American groups
3. The author mentions two researchers’ studies (lines22-
25) most likely in order to
(A) suggest that children’s political attitudes are formed
primarily through textbooks
(B) counter the claim that children are able to see
through stereotypes in textbooks
(C) suggest that younger children tend to interpret the
messages in textbooks more literally than do older
(D) demonstrate that textbooks carry political messages
meant to influence their readers
(E) prove that textbooks are not biased in terms of their
4. The author’s attitude toward the content of the history
textbooks discussed in the passage is best described as
5. It can be inferred from the passage that the researchers
mentioned in line 19 would be most likely to agree
with which of the following statements?
(A) Students form attitudes about cultures other than
their own primarily inside the school environment.
(B) For the most part, seniors in high school know that
textbooks can be biased.
(C) Textbooks play a crucial role in shaping the attitudes
and beliefs of students.
(D) Elementary school students are as likely to
recognize biases in textbooks as are high school
(E) Students are less likely to give credence to history
textbooks than to mathematics textbooks.
6. The author implies tha5t which of the following will
occur if textbooks are not carefully reviewed?
(A) Children will remain ignorant of the European
settlers’ conquest of the New World.
(B) Children will lose their ability to recognize biases
(C) Children will form negative stereotypes of Native
(D) Children will develop an understanding of
(E) Children will stop taking textbooks seriously.
Until recently, scientists did not know of a close verte-
brate analogue to the extreme form of altruism abserved in
eusocial insects like ants and bees, whereby individuals
cooperate, sometimes even sacrificing their own oppor-
( 5) tunities to survive and reproduce, for the good of others.
However, such a vertebrate society may exist among under-
ground colonies of the highly social rodent Heterocephalus
glaber, the naked mole rat.
A naked mole rat colony, like a beehive, wasp’s nest, or
(10) termite mound, is ruled by its queen, or reproducing
female. Other adult female mole rats neither ovulate nor
breed. The queen of the largest member of the colony, and
she maintains her breeding status through a mixture of
behavioral and, presumably, chemical control. Queens have
(15) been long-lived in captivity, and when they die or are
removed from a colony one sees violent fighting for breed-
ing status among the larger remaining females, leading to a
takeover by a new queen.
Eusocial insect societies have rigid caste systems, each
(20) insects’s role being defined by its behavior, body shape, and
physiology. In naked mole rat societies, on the other hand,
differences in behavior are related primarily to reproductive
status (reproduction being limited to the queen and a few
males), body size, and perhaps age. Smaller nonbreeding
(25) members, both male and female, seem to participate pri-
marily in gathering food, transporting nest material, and
tunneling. Larger nonreaders are active in defending the
colony and perhaps in removing dirt from the tunnels.
Jarvis’ work has suggested that differences in growth rates
may influence the length of time that an individual performs
(30) a task, regardless of its age.
Cooperative breeding has evolved many times in verte-
brates, but unlike naked mole rats, most cooperatively
breeding vertebrates (except the wild dog, Lycaon pictus)
(35) are dominated by a pair of breeders rather than by a single
breeding female. The division of labor within social groups
is less pronounced among other vertebrates than among
naked mole rats, colony size is much smaller, and mating
by subordinate females may not be totally suppressed,
(40) whereas in naked mole rat colonies subordinate females are
not sexually active, and many never breed.
1. Which of the following most accurately states the main
idea of the passage?
(A) Naked mole rat colonies are the only known
examples of cooperatively breeding vertebrate
(B) Naked mole rat colonies exhibit social organization
based on a rigid caste system.
(C) Behavior in naked mole rat colonies may well be
a close vertebrate analogue to behavior in eusocial
(D) The mating habits of naked mole rats differ from
those of any other vertebrate species.
(E) The basis for the division of labor among naked
mole rats is the same as that among eusocial insects.
2. The passage suggests that Jarvis’ work has called into
question which of the following explanatory variables
for naked mole rat behavior?
(C) Reproductive status
(D) Rate of growth
(E) Previously exhibited behavior
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the performance
of tasks in naked mole rat colonies differs from task
performance in eusocial insect societies in which of the
(A) In naked mole rat colonies, all tasks ate performed
(B) In naked mole rat colonies, the performance of
tasks is less rigidly determined by body shape.
(C) In naked mole rat colonies, breeding is limited to
the largest animals.
(D) In eusocial insect societies, reproduction is limited
to a single female.
(E) In eusocial insect societies, the distribution of
tasks is based on body size.
4. According to the passage, which of the following is a
supposition rather than a fact concerning the queen in a
naked mole rat colony?
(A) She is the largest member of the colony.
(B) She exerts chemical control over the colony.
(C) She mates with more than one male.
(D) She attains her status through aggression.
(E) She is the only breeding female.
5. The passage supports which of the following inferences
about breeding among Lycaon pictus?
(A) The largest female in the social group does
not maintain reproductive status by means of
(B) An individual’s ability to breed is related primarily
to its rate of growth.
(C) Breeding is the only task performed by the breeding
(D) Breeding in the social group is not cooperative.
(E) Breeding is not dominated by a single pair of dogs.
Coral reefs are one of the most fragile, biologically
complex, and diverse marine ecosystem on Earth. This
ecosystem is one of the fascinating paradoxes of the bio-
sphere: how do clear, and thus nutrient-poor, waters sup-
(5) port such prolific and productive communities? Part of the
answer lies within the tissues of the corals themselves.
Symbiotic cells of algae known as zooxanthellae carry out
photosynthesis using the metabolic wastes of the coral
thereby producing food for themselves, for their corals,
(10) hosts, and even for other members of the reef community.
This symbiotic process allows organisms in the reef com-
munity to use sparse nutrient resources efficiently.
Unfortunately for coral reefs, however, a variety of
human activities are causing worldwide degradation of
(15) shallow marine habitats by adding nutrients to the (water.
Agriculture, slash-and-burn land clearing, sewage disposal
and manufacturing that creates waste by-products all
increase nutrient loads in these waters. Typical symptoms
of reef decline are destabilized herbivore populations and
(20) an increasing abundance of algae and filter-feeding animals.
Declines in reef communities are consistent with observa-
tions that nutrient input is increasing in direct proportion to
growing human populations, thereby threatening reef com-
(25) munities sensitive to subtle changes in nutrient input to
1. The passage is primarily concerned with
(A) describing the effects of human activities on algae in
(B) explaining how human activities are posing a threat
to coral reef communities
(C) discussing the process by which coral reefs
deteriorate in nutrient-poor waters
(D) explaining how coral reefs produce food for
(E) describing the abundance of algae and filter-feeding
animals in coral reef areas
2. The passage suggests which of the following about coral
(A) Coral reef communities may actually be more likely
to thrive in waters that are relatively low in nutrients.
(B) The nutrients on which coral reef communities
thrive are only found in shallow waters.
(C) Human population growth has led to changing ocean
temperatures, which threatens coral reef
(D) The growth of coral reef communities tends to
destabilize underwater herbivore populations.
(E) Coral reef communities are more complex and
than most ecosystems located on dry land.
3. The author refers to “filter-feeding animals” (line 20)
in order to
(A) provide an example of a characteristic sign of reef
(B) explain how reef communities acquire sustenance
(C) identify a factor that helps herbivore populations
(D) indicate a cause of decreasing nutrient input in
waters that reefs inhabit
(E) identify members of coral reef communities that rely
on coral reefs for nutrients
4. According to the passage, which of the following is a
factor that is threatening the survival of coral reef
(A) The waters they inhabit contain few nutrient
(B) A decline in nutrient input is disrupting their
symbiotic relationship with zooxanthellae
(C) The degraded waters of their marine habitats have
reduced their ability to carry out photosynthesis
(D) They are too biologically complex to survive in
habitats with minimal nutrient input.
(E) Waste by-products result in an increase in nutrient
input to reef communities.
5. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
describes coral reef communities as paradoxical most
likely for which of the following reasons?
(A) They are thriving even though human activities
have depleted the nutrients in their environment.
(B) They are able to survive in spite of an over-
abundance of algae inhabiting their waters.
(C) They are able to survive in an environment with
limited food resources.
(D) Their metabolic wastes contribute to the degra-
dation of the waters that they inhabit.
(E) They are declining even when the water sur-
rounding them remains clear.
Two divergent definitions have dominated sociologists’
discussions of the nature of ethnicity. The first emphasizes
the primordial and unchanging character of ethnicity. In
this view, people have an essential need for belonging that
(5) is satisfied by membership in groups based on shared
ancestry and culture. A different conception of ethnicity
de-emphasizes the cultural component and defines ethnic
groups as interest groups. In this view, ethnicity serves as
a way of mobilizing a certain population behind issues
(10) relating to its economic position. While both of these
definitions are useful, neither fully captures the dynamic
and changing aspects of ethnicity in the United States.
Rather, ethnicity is more satisfactorily conceived of as a
process in which preexisting communal bonds and common
(15) cultural attributes are adapted for instrumental purposes
according to changing real-life situations.
One example of this process is the rise of participation
by Native American people in the broader United States
political system since the Civil Rights movement of the
(20)1960’s. Besides leading Native Americans to participate
more actively in politics (the number of Native American
legislative officeholders more than doubled), this movement
also evoked increased interest in tribal history and traditional
culture. Cultural and instrumental components of
(25 )ethnicity are not mutually exclusive, but rather reinforce
The Civil Rights movement also brought changes in the
uses to which ethnicity was put by Mexican American
people. In the 1960’s, Mexican Americans formed
(30) community-based political groups that emphasized ancestral
heritage as a way of mobilizing constituents. Such emerg-
ing issues as immigration and voting rights gave Mexican
American advocacy groups the means by which to promote
ethnic solidarity. Like European ethnic groups in the
(35) nineteenth-century United States, late-twentieth-century
Mexican American leaders combined ethnic with contem-
porary civic symbols. In 1968 Henry Censors, then mayor
of San Antonio, Texas, cited Mexican leader Benito Juarez
as a model for Mexican Americans in their fight for con-
(40) temporary civil rights. And every year, Mexican Americans
celebrate Cinco de Mayo as fervently as many Irish
American people embrace St. Patrick’s Day (both are major
holidays in the countries of origin), with both holidays
having been reinvented in the context of the United States
and linked to ideals, symbols, and heroes of the United
1. Which of the following best states the main idea of the
(A) In their definitions of the nature of ethnicity,
sociologists have underestimated the power of the
primordial human need to belong.
(B) Ethnicity is best defined as a dynamic process that
combines cultural components with shared
political and economic interests.
(C) In the United States in the twentieth century, ethnic
groups have begun to organize in order to further
their political and economic interests.
(D) Ethnicity in the United States has been significantly
changed by the Civil Rights movement.
(E) The two definitions of ethnicity that have dominated
sociologists discussions are incompatible
and should be replaced by an entirely new approach.
2. Which is the following statements about the first two
definitions of ethnicity discussed in the first paragraph
is supported by the passage?
(A) One is supported primarily by sociologists, and the
other is favored by members of ethnic groups.
(B) One emphasizes the political aspects of ethnicity,
and the other focuses on the economic aspects.
(C) One is the result of analysis of United States
populations, and the other is the result of analysis of
(D) One focuses more on the ancestral components
of ethnicity than does the other.
(E) One focuses more on immigrant groups than does
3. The author of the passage refers to Native American
people in the second paragraph in order to provide an
(A) the ability of membership in groups based on
shared ancestry and culture to satisfy an essential
(B) how ethnic feelings have both motivated and been
strengthened by political activity
(C) how the Civil Rights movement can help promote
solidarity among United States ethnic groups
(D) how participation in the political system has
helped to improve a group’s economic situation
(E) the benefits gained from renewed study of ethnic
history and culture
4. The passage supports which of the following statements
about the Mexican American co+munity?
(A) In the 1960’s the Mexican American community
began to incorporate the customs of another ethnic
group in the United States into the observation of its
own ethnic holidays.
(B) In the 1960’s Mexican American community
groups promoted ethnic solidarity primarily in
order to effect economic change
(C) In the 1960’s leader of the Mexican American
community concentrated their efforts on promoting
a renaissance of ethnic history and culture
(D) In the 1960’s members of the Mexican American
community were becoming increasingly concerned
about the issue of voting rights.
(E) In the 1960’s the Mexican American community
had greater success in mobilizing constituents
than did other ethnic groups in the United States.
5. Which of the following types of ethnic cultural
expression is discussed in the passage?
(A) The retelling of traditional narratives
(B) The wearing of traditional clothing
(C) The playing of traditional music
(D) The celebration of traditional holidays
(E) The preparation of traditional cuisine
6. Information in the passage supports which of the
following statements about many European ethnic
groups in the nineteenth-century United States?
(A) They emphasized economic interests as a way of
mobilizing constituents behind certain issues.
(B) They conceived of their own ethnicity as being
primordial in nature.
(C) They created cultural traditions that fused United
States symbols with those of their countries of
(D) They de-emphasized the cultural components of
their communities in favor of political interests.
(E) They organized formal community groups designed
to promote a renaissance of ethnic history and
7. The passage suggests that in 1968 Henry Cisneros most
likely believed that
(A) many Mexican American would respond positively
to the example of Benito Juarez.
(B) many Mexican American were insufficiently
educated in Mexican history
(C) the fight for civil fights in the United States had
many strong parallels in both Mexican and rish
(D) the quickest way of organizing community-based
groups was to emulate the tactics of Benito Juarez
(E) Mexican Americans should emulate the strategies
of Native American political leaders.
The fact that superior service can generate a competitive
advantage for a company does not mean that every attempt
at improving service will create such an advantage. Invest-
ments in service, like those in production and distribution,
(5) must be balanced against other types of investments on the
basis of direct, tangible benefits such as cost reduction and
increased revenues. If a company is already effectively on a
par with its competitors because it provides service that
avoids a damaging reputation and keeps customers from
(10) leaving at an unacceptable rate, then investment in higher
service levels may be wasted, since service is a deciding
factor for customers only in extreme situations.
This truth was not apparent to managers of one regional
bank, which failed to improve its competitive position
(15) despite its investment in reducing the time a customer had
to wait for a teller. The bank managers did not recognize
the level of customer inertia in the consumer banking
industry that arises from the inconvenience of switching
banks. Nor did they analyze their service improvement to
(20) determine whether it would attract new customers by pro-
ducing a new standard of service that would excite cus-
tomers or by proving difficult for competitors to copy. The
only merit of the improvement was that it could easily be
described to customers.
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) contrast possible outcomes of a type of business
(B) suggest more careful evaluation of a type of
(C) illustrate various ways in which a type of business
investment could fail to enhance revenues
(D) trace the general problems of a company to a
certain type of business investment
(E) criticize the way in which managers tend to analyze
the costs and benefits of business investments
2. According to the passage, investments in service are
comparable to investments in production and
distribution in terms of the
(A) tangibility of the benefits that they tend to confer
(B) increased revenues that they ultimately produce
(C) basis on which they need to be weighed
(D) insufficient analysis that managers devote to them
(E) degree of competitive advantage that they are likely
3. The passage suggests which of the following about
service provided by the regional bank prior to its
investment in enhancing that service?
(A) It enabled the bank to retain customers at an
(B) It threatened to weaken the bank’s competitive
position with respect to other regional banks
(C) It had already been improved after having caused
damage to the bank’s reputation in the past.
(D) It was slightly superior to that of the bank’s regional
(E) It needed to be improved to attain parity with the
service provided by competing banks.
4. The passage suggests that bank managers failed to
consider whether or not the service improvement
mentioned in line 19
(A) was too complicated to be easily described to
(B) made a measurable change in the experiences of
customers in the bank’s offices
(C) could be sustained if the number of customers
(D) was an innovation that competing banks could
(E) was adequate to bring the bank’s general level of
service to a level that was comparable with that of
5. The discussion of the regional bank (line 13-24) serves
which of the following functions within the passage as a
(A) It describes an exceptional case in which
investment in service actually failed to produce a
(B) It illustrates the pitfalls of choosing to invest in
service at a time when investment is needed
more urgently in another area.
(C) It demonstrates the kind of analysis that managers
apply when they choose one kind of service
investment over another
(D) It supports the argument that investments in
certain aspects of service are more advantageous
than investments in other aspects of service.
(E) It provides an example of the point about
investment in service made in the first paragraph.
6. The author uses the word “only” in line 23 most likely
in order to
(A) highlight the oddity of the service improvement
(B) emphasize the relatively low value of the
investment in service improvement
(C) distinguish the primary attribute of the service
improvement from secondary attributes
(D) single out a certain merit of the service
improvement from other merits
(E) point out the limited duration of the actual service